Nursing Elites

1. While providing an Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, the patient asks what the action of the drug is. As a healthcare provider, you explain that the action of an ACE inhibitor is:

• A. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II
• B. To inhibit reabsorption of sodium back into the body, ultimately increasing urine output and lowering blood pressure
• C. To decrease heart rate and blood pressure by competing with Beta1 and Beta2 receptors in the heart and lungs
• D. To lower blood glucose by stimulating the release of insulin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by inhibiting its formation, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload on the heart. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the action of beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of antidiabetic medications, not ACE inhibitors.

2. A client has a new prescription for Allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Increase your fluid intake.
• C. Avoid foods high in calcium.
• D. Take this medication with meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Allopurinol can increase the risk of kidney stones as a side effect. To prevent this adverse effect, it is essential for the client to increase their fluid intake. Adequate hydration can help in preventing the formation of kidney stones by keeping urine dilute and flushing out substances that can lead to stone formation.

3. A client is prescribed Propylthiouracil (PTU) for the treatment of Graves' disease. Which adverse effect should the client be instructed to report?

• A. Sore throat.
• B. Drowsiness.
• C. Urinary retention.
• D. Heat intolerance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sore throat. A sore throat and fever can indicate agranulocytosis, a serious adverse effect of PTU that can lead to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Choice B, drowsiness, is not typically associated with PTU and is not a common adverse effect that needs to be reported. Choice C, urinary retention, is not a typical adverse effect of PTU; therefore, it is not the correct answer. Choice D, heat intolerance, is a symptom commonly seen in hyperthyroidism, which PTU is used to treat, so it is not an adverse effect that needs to be specifically reported.

4. A client has a prescription for Timolol eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for 30 to 60 seconds after application.
• B. Avoid blinking immediately after instilling the drops.
• C. Keep your eyes closed for 5 minutes after application.
• D. Administer the drops directly onto the cornea.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to apply gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for 30 to 60 seconds after application. This technique helps prevent systemic absorption of the medication, reducing the risk of systemic side effects. By applying pressure, the drainage of the medication into the bloodstream through the nasolacrimal duct is minimized, enhancing the drug's local ocular effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blinking immediately after instilling the drops, keeping eyes closed for 5 minutes, and administering the drops directly onto the cornea are not recommended practices for administering Timolol eye drops.

5. A client with cancer and a prescription for methotrexate PO reports bleeding gums while being assessed by a nurse in a provider's clinic. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Explain to the client that this is an expected adverse effect.
• B. Check the value of the client's current platelet count.
• C. Instruct the client to use an electric toothbrush.
• D. Have the client make an appointment to see the dentist.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client on methotrexate reports bleeding gums is to check the client's current platelet count. Bleeding gums may indicate thrombocytopenia, a decreased platelet count which can be a severe side effect of methotrexate therapy. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial for early detection and management of this potentially life-threatening complication. Choice A is incorrect as bleeding gums in this context may not be an expected adverse effect of methotrexate. Choice C is irrelevant and does not address the potential underlying issue of thrombocytopenia. Choice D is not the primary action needed at this point; checking the platelet count is more urgent to assess the severity of the situation.

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