ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. While providing an Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, the patient asks what the action of the drug is. As a healthcare provider, you explain that the action of an ACE inhibitor is:
- A. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II
- B. To inhibit reabsorption of sodium back into the body, ultimately increasing urine output and lowering blood pressure
- C. To decrease heart rate and blood pressure by competing with Beta1 and Beta2 receptors in the heart and lungs
- D. To lower blood glucose by stimulating the release of insulin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by inhibiting its formation, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload on the heart. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the action of beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of antidiabetic medications, not ACE inhibitors.
2. What is the first step in treating a child with suspected anaphylaxis?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Start an IV line
- C. Give epinephrine
- D. Monitor vital signs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Give epinephrine. Administering epinephrine is the first and most critical step in treating anaphylaxis. Epinephrine rapidly reverses the symptoms of anaphylaxis, including airway swelling, hypotension, and shock. Delaying administration can lead to severe complications or death, making it essential in emergency treatment. Choice A, administering oxygen, might be necessary but should not delay the administration of epinephrine. Starting an IV line (Choice B) is important for further treatment but not the initial step. Monitoring vital signs (Choice D) is essential but comes after administering epinephrine to stabilize the child.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Lorazepam
- B. Atenolol
- C. Naltrexone
- D. Methadone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lorazepam is the correct choice for managing acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms due to its effectiveness in controlling agitation and tremors associated with this condition. Atenolol (Choice B) is a beta-blocker mainly used for hypertension and angina, not for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Naltrexone (Choice C) is used for alcohol dependence treatment by reducing cravings and the rewarding effects of alcohol, but it is not typically used in acute withdrawal situations. Methadone (Choice D) is an opioid agonist mainly used for opioid detoxification and maintenance therapy, not for alcohol withdrawal.
4. One reason for conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is:
- A. It is needed to protect the organization from legal actions.
- B. It is required after a strenuous interview.
- C. It is mandated by law.
- D. It is necessary to screen for disabilities that may impact employment.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is crucial to protect the organization from legal actions. This examination helps ensure that the applicant meets the health standards required for the job, reducing the risk of potential liabilities for the organization related to health issues that may arise during employment. Choice B is incorrect because the exam is not a follow-up to a strenuous interview. Choice C is incorrect as not all comprehensive medical exams are mandated by law; they are often part of an organization's policy. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of the exam is to assess the applicant's health status in relation to the job requirements, not to screen for disabilities.
5. A client has a new diagnosis of celiac disease. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Steatorrhea
- B. Projectile vomiting
- C. Sunken abdomen
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Celiac disease is a condition where individuals are unable to digest gluten, leading to damage in the bowel cells and subsequent malabsorption. This malabsorption commonly presents with symptoms such as steatorrhea, which is characterized by foul-smelling, greasy, and bulky stools due to high fat content. Projectile vomiting and sunken abdomen are not typical manifestations of celiac disease. Weight gain is unlikely in individuals with celiac disease due to malabsorption and nutrient deficiencies. Therefore, the nurse should expect steatorrhea as a clinical manifestation in clients with celiac disease.
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