ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. While providing an Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, the patient asks what the action of the drug is. As a healthcare provider, you explain that the action of an ACE inhibitor is:
- A. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II
- B. To inhibit reabsorption of sodium back into the body, ultimately increasing urine output and lowering blood pressure
- C. To decrease heart rate and blood pressure by competing with Beta1 and Beta2 receptors in the heart and lungs
- D. To lower blood glucose by stimulating the release of insulin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by inhibiting its formation, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload on the heart. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the action of beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of antidiabetic medications, not ACE inhibitors.
2. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply the patch to the same site each day.
- B. Remove the patch at night.
- C. Cover the patch with a heating pad.
- D. Apply the patch to a hairless area of skin.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction is to apply the Nitroglycerin transdermal patch to a hairless area of skin. This ensures proper absorption of the medication. It is important to rotate the application site daily to prevent skin irritation and tolerance development. Applying the patch to the same site each day can lead to decreased efficacy and potential skin reactions. Removing the patch at night is not necessary as the patches are usually worn continuously to provide constant medication delivery. Covering the patch with a heating pad can increase the absorption of the medication and lead to an overdose, which is not recommended.
3. A client has a new prescription for allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Drink 2 liters of water daily.
- B. Avoid taking the medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Limit vitamin C intake while taking this medication.
- D. Take an iron supplement while on this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed allopurinol is to drink 2 liters of water daily. This recommendation aims to reduce the risk of kidney stones, a potential side effect associated with allopurinol use. Adequate hydration helps prevent the formation of uric acid crystals in the kidneys, which can lead to kidney stones. Therefore, encouraging increased water intake is essential in the management of clients taking allopurinol.
4. A healthcare professional is planning to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Monitor for seizures and confusion with repeated doses.
- B. Protect the client's skin from severe diarrhea that occurs with morphine.
- C. Withhold this medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min.
- D. Administer Morphine intermittently via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the healthcare professional should take when administering Morphine IV to a postoperative client is to withhold the medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min. Respiratory depression is a common adverse effect of opioids like Morphine. Administering opioids when the respiratory rate is already compromised can further depress breathing, leading to life-threatening complications. Monitoring for seizures and confusion (Choice A) is not directly related to Morphine administration. Protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea (Choice B) is not a common side effect of morphine. Administering Morphine via IV bolus (Choice D) should be done carefully but is not the most critical action in this scenario.
5. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of Verapamil?
- A. I am constipated frequently.
- B. I have been urinating more frequently.
- C. My skin is peeling.
- D. I have ringing in my ears.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Constipation is a common adverse effect of Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker. Verapamil can slow down bowel movements and lead to constipation as a side effect. Therefore, the client reporting frequent constipation should alert the nurse to a potential adverse effect of Verapamil. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with Verapamil use. Increased urination is not a common side effect of Verapamil, peeling skin is more likely related to a dermatological issue, and ringing in the ears is not a known adverse effect of Verapamil.
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