Nursing Elites

1. While providing an Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, the patient asks what the action of the drug is. As a healthcare provider, you explain that the action of an ACE inhibitor is:

• A. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II
• B. To inhibit reabsorption of sodium back into the body, ultimately increasing urine output and lowering blood pressure
• C. To decrease heart rate and blood pressure by competing with Beta1 and Beta2 receptors in the heart and lungs
• D. To lower blood glucose by stimulating the release of insulin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by inhibiting its formation, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload on the heart. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the action of beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of antidiabetic medications, not ACE inhibitors.

2. A client with a prescription for Vasopressin to treat Diabetes Insipidus is being taught by a healthcare professional. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will reduce my sodium intake.
• B. I should increase my water intake.
• C. I will notify my doctor if I develop chest pain.
• D. I should take this medication with food.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Vasopressin can cause vasoconstriction, potentially leading to chest pain. It is crucial for the client to inform their healthcare provider immediately if they experience chest pain while on Vasopressin therapy to address any potential cardiovascular complications promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While maintaining adequate hydration is essential with Vasopressin therapy due to its antidiuretic effect, increasing water intake is not the most critical aspect to monitor. Reducing sodium intake may be beneficial in some cases but is not directly related to the potential side effects of Vasopressin. Taking the medication with food is not a specific instruction for Vasopressin administration.

3. When administering the drug senna to a patient, what must a health care provider inform the patient of?

• A. This drug is intended to lower blood pressure and is best used in combination with other antihypertensives
• B. This drug is not intended for long-term use
• C. The patient must limit his/her fiber intake
• D. Advise the patient to change positions slowly to limit the risk of orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Senna is a laxative used for short-term relief of constipation, not for long-term use. Choice A is incorrect because senna does not lower blood pressure or require combination with antihypertensives. Choice C is unrelated as there is no need to limit fiber intake with senna. Choice D is incorrect as orthostatic hypotension is not a common concern with senna use.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following laboratory values should the professional monitor?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum sodium
• C. Serum calcium
• D. Serum magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause hyperkalemia by reducing the excretion of potassium in the kidneys. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the healthcare professional should closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels when they are on Lisinopril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril primarily affects potassium levels due to its mechanism of action as an ACE inhibitor. Serum sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by Lisinopril in the same way as potassium.

5. At what amount does Acetaminophen stop effectively controlling pain?

• A. Over 1,000 mg
• B. 750 mg
• C. Over 1,500 mg
• D. 150 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen is known to lose its effectiveness in controlling pain beyond a dosage of 1,000 mg. Taking more than 1,000 mg will not provide additional pain relief but can increase the risk of adverse effects. Choice B (750 mg) is incorrect because this amount is within the typical recommended dose range for Acetaminophen. Choice C (Over 1,500 mg) is incorrect as it suggests a higher dose than the point at which Acetaminophen starts to lose its effectiveness. Choice D (150 mg) is too low a dose to effectively control pain for most adults.

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