Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving combination chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

• A. Dry oral mucous membranes
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
• D. Anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients receiving chemotherapy due to the increased risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice A), nausea and vomiting (Choice B), and anorexia (Choice D) are common side effects of chemotherapy but do not typically indicate an oncologic emergency requiring immediate intervention.

2. A client is taking Desmopressin for Diabetes Insipidus. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypovolemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Agitation
• D. Headache

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Headache is an adverse effect that the nurse should monitor for in a client taking Desmopressin for Diabetes Insipidus. It can be an early sign of water intoxication, which is a potential complication of desmopressin therapy due to excessive water retention in the body.

3. A client reports taking Phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for Sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Sedation
• B. Nasal congestion
• C. Productive cough
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nasal congestion. When used for more than 5 days, nasal sympathomimetic medications like phenylephrine can lead to rebound nasal congestion, which is an adverse effect to be assessed in the client. Sedation (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of phenylephrine. Productive cough (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are also not typical adverse effects associated with phenylephrine use.

4. A healthcare professional is planning to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Monitor for seizures and confusion with repeated doses.
• B. Protect the client's skin from severe diarrhea that occurs with morphine.
• C. Withhold this medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min.
• D. Administer Morphine intermittently via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the healthcare professional should take when administering Morphine IV to a postoperative client is to withhold the medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min. Respiratory depression is a common adverse effect of opioids like Morphine. Administering opioids when the respiratory rate is already compromised can further depress breathing, leading to life-threatening complications. Monitoring for seizures and confusion (Choice A) is not directly related to Morphine administration. Protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea (Choice B) is not a common side effect of morphine. Administering Morphine via IV bolus (Choice D) should be done carefully but is not the most critical action in this scenario.

5. What is the therapeutic class of Valproate?

• A. Anticoagulant
• B. Antianxiety, benzodiazepines
• C. Anticonvulsant, vascular headache suppressant
• D. Mood stabilizer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Valproate belongs to the therapeutic class of anticonvulsants. It is primarily used to manage seizures but is also effective in treating vascular headaches. Therefore, it is not classified as an anticoagulant, antianxiety medication, or mood stabilizer. Option A, anticoagulant, is incorrect as valproate does not have anticoagulant properties. Option B, antianxiety benzodiazepines, is incorrect as valproate is not primarily used to treat anxiety disorders with benzodiazepines. Option D, mood stabilizer, is incorrect as valproate is not classified as a mood stabilizer, although it can be used in some cases for mood disorders, its primary therapeutic class is anticonvulsant.

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