what is the therapeutic action of phenytoin
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024

1. What is the therapeutic action of Phenytoin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Phenytoin is primarily used as an anticonvulsant to prevent and control seizures. It works by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain, making it effective in managing conditions like epilepsy. Antidiabetic medications are used to regulate blood sugar levels, mood stabilizers help manage mood disorders, and antianxiety agents are used to reduce anxiety symptoms, none of which are the primary therapeutic action of Phenytoin.

2. A client has a new prescription for Metformin. Which of the following adverse effects of Metformin should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A: Somnolence.' Somnolence can indicate lactic acidosis, which is manifested by extreme drowsiness, hyperventilation, and muscle pain. It is a rare but very serious adverse effect caused by metformin and should be reported to the provider promptly to prevent further complications.

3. A client with a new prescription for Verapamil to control hypertension is being taught by a healthcare professional. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Grapefruit juice can increase blood levels of verapamil, leading to increased effects and potentially serious side effects such as hypotension or bradycardia. It is crucial for the client to avoid grapefruit juice while taking Verapamil to prevent these adverse reactions. Choice B is incorrect because verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that typically lowers heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as verapamil does not cause urine discoloration. Choice D is incorrect because stopping medication abruptly without consulting a healthcare provider can be dangerous.

4. When educating a client prescribed Rifampin, which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Rifampin is to expect orange discoloration of urine. Rifampin is known to cause harmless discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, which is a common side effect of this medication. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this expected side effect to prevent unnecessary concern or discontinuation of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Rifampin does not require specific dietary considerations like taking it with food or increasing dairy intake. Furthermore, itching is not a common side effect that would necessitate immediate discontinuation of Rifampin.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of a client who is starting therapy with tamoxifen. The healthcare provider should recognize that tamoxifen is contraindicated in which of the following clients?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tamoxifen is contraindicated in clients with a history of thromboembolic events, such as deep-vein thrombosis, due to the increased risk of blood clots. The estrogenic effects of tamoxifen can further increase the risk of thromboembolic events, making it unsafe for individuals with a history of deep-vein thrombosis. Choice B (migraine headaches), Choice C (hypertension), and Choice D (anemia) are not contraindications for tamoxifen therapy. Migraine headaches, hypertension, and anemia do not pose the same risk of adverse effects related to blood clot formation as deep-vein thrombosis does.

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