ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. What is the therapeutic action of Phenytoin?
- A. Antidiabetic
- B. Anticonvulsant
- C. Mood stabilizer
- D. Antianxiety agent
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin is primarily used as an anticonvulsant to prevent and control seizures. It works by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain, making it effective in managing conditions like epilepsy. Antidiabetic medications are used to regulate blood sugar levels, mood stabilizers help manage mood disorders, and antianxiety agents are used to reduce anxiety symptoms, none of which are the primary therapeutic action of Phenytoin.
2. A client is diagnosed as having a positive reaction to the Mantoux test. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?
- A. Isolate the client in a private room.
- B. Administer isoniazid (INH) as prescribed.
- C. Schedule the client for a chest x-ray.
- D. Begin a 9-month course of medication therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to schedule the client for a chest x-ray. A positive Mantoux test indicates exposure to TB, but it does not confirm active disease. A chest x-ray is necessary to assess the presence of active TB disease. Isolating the client in a private room (Choice A) is not necessary based solely on a positive Mantoux test result. Administering isoniazid (INH) (Choice B) or beginning a 9-month course of medication therapy (Choice D) is premature without confirming active TB through a chest x-ray.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Weight loss.
- B. Bradycardia.
- C. Peripheral edema.
- D. Dry cough.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Peripheral edema. In right-sided heart failure, the heart struggles to pump blood efficiently, leading to fluid backup in the body. This fluid retention commonly manifests as peripheral edema, causing swelling in the legs, ankles, and feet. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Weight loss is not typically associated with right-sided heart failure; bradycardia (slow heart rate) is more commonly seen in conditions like hypothyroidism or athletes, not specifically in right-sided heart failure; and a dry cough is more commonly associated with conditions like pneumonia or bronchitis, not typically with right-sided heart failure.
4. A client with bipolar disorder and experiencing mania is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room.
- B. Withdraw the client's TV privileges if they do not attend group therapy.
- C. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
- D. Place the client in seclusion when they exhibit signs of anxiety.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods is an appropriate intervention for managing mania in a client with bipolar disorder. During a manic episode, individuals often have increased energy levels, decreased need for sleep, and may engage in high-risk behaviors. Encouraging regular rest periods can help reduce stimulation and promote relaxation, which may assist in stabilizing mood. Choices A and B are not as effective in managing manic symptoms, as they do not directly address the client's need for rest and relaxation. Choice D is inappropriate because placing the client in seclusion can increase feelings of anxiety and agitation, worsening the manic episode.
5. A client in labor is receiving IV Opioid analgesics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours.
- B. Offer oral hygiene every 2 hours.
- C. Anticipate medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery.
- D. Monitor fetal heart rate every 2 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Offering oral hygiene every 2 hours is essential for a client receiving opioid analgesics to prevent dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting, which are common adverse effects associated with opioid use. This intervention promotes comfort and enhances the client's well-being during labor. Instructing the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours is not appropriate for a client in labor receiving opioid analgesics, as it may be challenging and unnecessary during this time. Anticipating medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery is not necessary as the timing of medication administration should be based on the client's pain level and the duration of action of the opioid. Monitoring fetal heart rate every 2 hours is important during labor, but the priority in this case is to address the client's comfort and well-being by offering oral hygiene.
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