Nursing Elites

1. Which topical antimicrobial is most frequently used in burn wound care?

• A. Neosporin
• B. Silver nitrate
• C. Silver sulfadiazine
• D. Sulfamylon

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

2. To prevent recurrent attacks on client with glomerulonephritis, the nurse instructs the client to:

• A. Take a shower instead of tub baths
• B. Avoid situations that involve physical activity
• C. Continue the same restriction on fluid intake
• D. Seek early treatment for respiratory infection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

3. While a team effort is necessary in the operating room (OR) for efficient and quality patient care delivery, the number of people in the room should be limited for infection control purposes. Which roles comprise this team?

• A. Surgeon, anesthesiologist, scrub nurse, radiologist, orderly
• B. Surgeon, assistants, scrub nurse, circulating nurse, anesthesiologist
• C. Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anesthesiologist, scrub nurse, pathologist
• D. Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anesthesiologist, intern, scrub nurse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The roles typically present in an operating room team include the surgeon, assistants (which may include an assistant surgeon), scrub nurse, circulating nurse, and anesthesiologist. These roles are directly involved in the operation and patient care. Choice B is correct. Choice A includes a radiologist and an orderly, who are not typically part of the immediate surgical team in the OR. Choice C includes a pathologist, who usually works in a laboratory outside of the OR. Choice D includes an intern, who may or may not be part of the team, depending on the specific circumstances and hospital policy. These explanations make choices A, C, and D incorrect.

4. A nurse is teaching an in-service about manifestations of hypoglycemia to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Blurred vision
• B. Vomiting
• C. Kussmaul respirations
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision is a common symptom of hypoglycemia and should be included in the teaching. Other manifestations like vomiting, Kussmaul respirations, and bradycardia are not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Vomiting is more commonly seen in conditions like food poisoning or gastrointestinal issues. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid respirations seen in metabolic acidosis, not hypoglycemia. Bradycardia is usually not a manifestation of hypoglycemia; tachycardia is more commonly associated with low blood sugar levels.

5. Maternal malnutrition at a critical period of development may have lifelong effects on an individual's pattern of genetic expression and on the tendency to develop obesity, which is a concept known as _____.

• A. genetic determination
• B. metabolic tolerance
• C. chromosomal influence
• D. fetal programming

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fetal programming refers to the concept that maternal nutrition during critical periods of development can have long-term effects on an individual's health and risk of diseases like obesity.

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