Nursing Elites

1. What is the most likely complication for a client receiving TPN who suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis?

• A. Fluid volume overload
• B. Sepsis
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypoglycemia. When a client receiving TPN suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis, it is indicative of hypoglycemia. TPN provides a high concentration of glucose, and if it is abruptly stopped or the infusion rate is reduced, it can lead to hypoglycemia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the symptoms described in the scenario. Fluid volume overload typically presents with edema and hypertension, sepsis with fever and increased heart rate, and hyperglycemia with polyuria, polydipsia, and blurred vision.

2. Which of the following nutrients provide energy?(Select ONE that does not apply.)

• A. Carbohydrates
• B. Fats
• C. Protein
• D. Water

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins are the three macronutrients that provide energy (calories) to the body. Carbohydrates are the body's primary source of energy, fats act as a secondary source when carbohydrate energy is exhausted, and proteins are used for energy when carbohydrate and fat sources are low. Choice D, Water, is essential for the body's functions, but it does not provide energy.

3. During the Emergent phase of a burn, the most fatal electrolyte imbalance in a burned client is:

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the Emergent phase of burns, the most fatal electrolyte imbalance is Hypokalemia. This is due to the shift of potassium from the intracellular space to the extracellular space, leading to low potassium levels in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Hyperkalemia, Hypernatremia, and Hyponatremia are not typically associated with the Emergent phase of burns and do not pose the same level of risk as Hypokalemia in this context.

4. What is the primary food safety concern for a patient undergoing chemotherapy?

• A. Possible food allergy reactions
• B. Possible food-drug interactions
• C. Possible pesticide residue
• D. Potential risk of foodborne illness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potential risk of foodborne illness. Patients undergoing chemotherapy have compromised immune systems, making them more susceptible to foodborne illnesses. Chemotherapy can reduce the count of white blood cells, which impairs the body's ability to fight off infections from bacteria or other pathogens that might be present in food. Therefore, the prevention of foodborne illnesses is a critical concern for these patients. Choices A, B, and C, while they represent valid concerns for food safety in general, are not the primary concern for patients undergoing chemotherapy. These patients are at a heightened risk of experiencing severe complications from foodborne illnesses, making it a more significant concern than potential food allergies, food-drug interactions, or pesticide residues.

5. Transmission of HIV from an infected individual to another person occurs:

• A. Most frequently in nurses with needlesticks
• B. Only if there is a large viral load in the blood
• C. Most commonly as a result of sexual contact
• D. In all infants born to women with HIV infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.

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