Nursing Elites

1. What is the most likely complication for a client receiving TPN who suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis?

• A. Fluid volume overload
• B. Sepsis
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypoglycemia. When a client receiving TPN suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis, it is indicative of hypoglycemia. TPN provides a high concentration of glucose, and if it is abruptly stopped or the infusion rate is reduced, it can lead to hypoglycemia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the symptoms described in the scenario. Fluid volume overload typically presents with edema and hypertension, sepsis with fever and increased heart rate, and hyperglycemia with polyuria, polydipsia, and blurred vision.

2. What condition has been shown to be associated with esophageal dysphagia?

• A. myasthenia gravis
• B. achalasia
• C. Alzheimer's disease
• D. cerebral palsy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Achalasia is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by the esophagus having difficulty moving food toward the stomach, resulting in dysphagia (difficulty swallowing). Myasthenia gravis (Choice A) is a neuromuscular disorder that affects skeletal muscles, not the esophagus. Alzheimer's disease (Choice C) primarily affects cognitive function, not the esophagus. Cerebral palsy (Choice D) is a neurological disorder affecting body movement and muscle coordination, unrelated to esophageal dysphagia.

3. After a few hours in the Emergency Room, Mr. Dizon is admitted to the ward with an order of hourly monitoring of blood pressure. The nurse finds that the cuff is too narrow and this will cause the blood pressure reading to be:

• A. inconsistent
• B. low systolic and high diastolic
• C. higher than what the reading should be
• D. lower than what the reading should be

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

4. Without enough calcium, both males and females are at risk of osteoporosis.

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The statement is true. Both males and females are at risk of developing osteoporosis if they do not consume enough calcium. Calcium is essential for maintaining strong bones, and inadequate intake can lead to bone density loss and increase the risk of osteoporosis. Therefore, it is crucial for individuals of all genders to ensure they have an adequate calcium intake to support bone health. Choice B is incorrect because osteoporosis is a condition that can affect both males and females.

5. A client who is in her second trimester of pregnancy should increase her caloric intake by how many calories during this trimester?

• A. 110 cal/day
• B. 225 cal/day
• C. 340 cal/day
• D. 450 cal/day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the second trimester of pregnancy, it is recommended that a client increases their caloric intake by around 340 calories per day to support the growing needs of both the mother and the developing fetus. This additional intake helps ensure the proper nutrition and energy levels required during this crucial stage of pregnancy. Option A (110 cal/day) is too low to meet the increased demands. Option B (225 cal/day) is also below the recommended amount. Option D (450 cal/day) is higher than necessary and could lead to excessive weight gain, which is not ideal during pregnancy.

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