what is the most likely complication for a client receiving tpn who suddenly develops tremors dizziness and diaphoresis
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Nutrition Exam 2019

1. What is the most likely complication for a client receiving TPN who suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypoglycemia. When a client receiving TPN suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis, it is indicative of hypoglycemia. TPN provides a high concentration of glucose, and if it is abruptly stopped or the infusion rate is reduced, it can lead to hypoglycemia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the symptoms described in the scenario. Fluid volume overload typically presents with edema and hypertension, sepsis with fever and increased heart rate, and hyperglycemia with polyuria, polydipsia, and blurred vision.

2. What is a major feature of the therapeutic lifestyle changes (TLC) recommended for the treatment of high blood cholesterol?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Limiting saturated fat intake to less than 7% of energy intake.' This is a central feature of the therapeutic lifestyle changes (TLC) recommended for treating high blood cholesterol. Saturated fats can increase low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol, a significant risk factor for heart disease. Choice A is incorrect because while it is recommended to limit cholesterol intake, it's not suggested to avoid all foods containing cholesterol entirely in the TLC. Choice B is also incorrect as although reducing sodium intake is beneficial for controlling blood pressure, it's not specifically targeted in the TLC for managing high cholesterol. Lastly, while limiting total fat intake is a healthy guideline, it's not as specific or effective as limiting saturated fat intake, making choice C also incorrect.

3. Onset frequently occurs after the age of 40.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Type 2 Diabetes. Type 2 Diabetes commonly presents with an onset after the age of 40, although it is now also seen in younger individuals due to lifestyle factors such as poor diet and lack of exercise. Type 1 Diabetes, on the other hand, typically develops in childhood or adolescence and is not associated with age over 40. Choices C and D are left blank as they are not relevant to the question.

4. What is the glomerular filtration rate for patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD), also known as end-stage renal disease, the kidney function is significantly compromised. This severe condition is characterized by a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m�, as correctly stated in choice A. Choices B, C, and D suggest higher GFR values, which are not indicative of stage 5 CKD. Specifically, a GFR of less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m� indicates stage 4 CKD, less than 90 mL/min/1.73 m� signifies stage 3 CKD, and a typical healthy individual usually has a GFR of around 125 mL/min/1.73 m�, which is far above the GFR for stage 5 CKD.

5. The purpose of chest percussion and vibration is to loosen secretions in the lungs. The difference between the procedures is:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chest percussion involves the use of rhythmic tapping to dislodge mucus from the lungs, facilitating its movement toward the larger airways where it can be expelled. This technique is particularly important in conditions where mucus retention is a significant risk factor for infection. The key difference between chest percussion and vibration is that percussion involves slapping the chest to loosen secretions, while vibration involves shaking the secretions along with the inhalation, aiding in moving the loosened secretions upwards for easier removal. Choices A, B, and C do not accurately describe the main difference between chest percussion and vibration, making them incorrect.

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