ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019
1. Generally, lifestyle-related diseases share common risk factors. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
- A. Physical activity
- B. Smoking
- C. Genetics
- D. Nutrition
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Common risk factors for lifestyle-related diseases typically include aspects of one's lifestyle that can be modified or controlled, such as physical activity, smoking habits, and nutrition. These factors can be changed to prevent or manage lifestyle-related diseases. Genetics, on the other hand, is not a modifiable risk factor, meaning it cannot be changed or controlled. Therefore, it is not considered a common risk factor for lifestyle-related diseases. Understanding the modifiable risk factors for these diseases allows for better prevention and management strategies, and helps reduce the risk of complications.
2. Select all that apply. Which of the following are true about protein digestion?
- A. the end products of protein digestion are amino acids
- B. protein/polypeptides are digested in the large intestine by trypsin
- C. A, D
- D. protein/polypeptides are digested in the stomach by pepsin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Protein digestion begins in the stomach with the enzyme pepsin, which breaks down proteins into smaller polypeptides. The end products of protein digestion are amino acids.
3. A client who has dumping syndrome following a hemi-colectomy should avoid which of the following foods when receiving nutritional teaching from a nurse?
- A. Rice
- B. Poached eggs
- C. Fresh apples
- D. White bread
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Fresh apples should be avoided by a client with dumping syndrome following a hemi-colectomy because they are high in fiber and can exacerbate gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhea and bloating. Rice and poached eggs are good options as they are easily digestible and less likely to trigger dumping syndrome symptoms. White bread is also preferable over whole grain bread due to its lower fiber content, making it a better choice for individuals with dumping syndrome.
4. A client has bilateral eye patches in place following an injury. When the client's food tray arrives, which of the following interventions should the nurse take to promote independence in eating?
- A. Assign an assistive personnel to feed the client.
- B. Explain to the client that their tray is here and guide their hands to it.
- C. Describe to the client the location of the food on the tray.
- D. Ask the client if they would prefer a liquid diet.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client has bilateral eye patches, promoting independence in eating is crucial to maintain dignity and autonomy. Describing the location of the food on the tray enables the client to locate and feed themselves. Assigning assistive personnel to feed the client (Choice A) takes away their independence. Merely informing the client that the tray is here and guiding their hands to it (Choice B) does not empower the client to eat independently. Asking if the client prefers a liquid diet (Choice D) is not directly addressing the client's ability to independently eat the current meal.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing fluid volume excess?
- A. BUN 8 mg/dL
- B. Hgb 15 g/dL
- C. Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
- D. Sodium 140 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A BUN level of 8 mg/dL indicates fluid volume excess in a client with heart failure. BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) levels can be low in fluid overload due to hemodilution, a common occurrence in heart failure. High levels of BUN usually indicate dehydration or impaired renal function, which are not the case in fluid volume excess. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate fluid volume excess.
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