lifestyle related diseases in general share areas common risk factors these are the following except
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019

1. Generally, lifestyle-related diseases share common risk factors. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Common risk factors for lifestyle-related diseases typically include aspects of one's lifestyle that can be modified or controlled, such as physical activity, smoking habits, and nutrition. These factors can be changed to prevent or manage lifestyle-related diseases. Genetics, on the other hand, is not a modifiable risk factor, meaning it cannot be changed or controlled. Therefore, it is not considered a common risk factor for lifestyle-related diseases. Understanding the modifiable risk factors for these diseases allows for better prevention and management strategies, and helps reduce the risk of complications.

2. What is the approximate energy value of alcohol?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7 kcal/g. Alcohol provides approximately 7 kilocalories per gram, making it a significant source of energy or 'empty calories' in the diet that do not contain any nutrients. 'Empty calories' refer to the calorie content without the presence of essential nutrients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. The energy values of 3 kcal/g, 10 kcal/g, and 25 kcal/g are not accurate for alcohol; instead, they may pertain to other nutrients such as carbohydrates (approximately 4 kcal/g), fats (approximately 9 kcal/g), and oils (approximately 9 kcal/g).

3. Which dietary supplement is often recommended for patients taking statins to lower cholesterol?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Coenzyme Q10 is often recommended for patients on statins because it may help reduce muscle pain, a common side effect of these medications. Iron (Choice A) is not typically recommended for patients taking statins to lower cholesterol. Calcium (Choice C) and Magnesium (Choice D) are not specifically indicated for addressing muscle pain associated with statin use, making them less suitable choices in this scenario.

4. What are symptoms of uncontrolled type 1 diabetes?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased thirst, urination, and hunger. Uncontrolled type 1 diabetes typically presents with classic symptoms including polydipsia (increased thirst), polyuria (frequent urination), and polyphagia (increased hunger). These symptoms are often accompanied by weight loss due to the body's inability to properly utilize glucose for energy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical symptoms of uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Depression, anxiety, fatigue, weight gain, macrosomia, food cravings, poor wound healing, blurred vision, and recurrent infections are not primary symptoms associated with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Maintaining an HbA1c level of 5 percent indicates good long-term blood glucose control and understanding of diabetes management. Choice A is incorrect because the presence of albumin in the urine (albuminuria) is actually an indication of kidney damage in diabetes. Choice C is incorrect as ketones in the urine are a sign of inadequate insulin and can occur when blood glucose levels are high, not at a specific level like 190 mg/dL. Choice D is also incorrect as the client should aim to keep blood glucose levels within a tighter range for better control, typically between 80-130 mg/dL before meals and less than 180 mg/dL after meals.

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