which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive compulsive disorder ocd
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Practice A

1. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

2. What principle about patient-nurse communication should guide a nurse's fear of saying the wrong thing to a patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Patients value interactions with healthcare providers who express genuine acceptance, respect, and concern for their well-being. By focusing on conveying these qualities, a nurse can help alleviate fears of saying the wrong thing as patients appreciate the sincerity and empathy in the communication. This approach fosters trust and a positive therapeutic relationship, enhancing the effectiveness of patient-nurse communication.

3. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this symptom?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations, providing reality-based feedback is a therapeutic intervention. This helps the client differentiate between what is real and what is not, aiding in reducing the impact of hallucinations. Encouraging the client to discuss the voices may validate the hallucinations, telling the client that the voices are not real dismisses their experience, and distracting the client may not address the underlying issue of the hallucinations.

4. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an antidepressant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse exclude from the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should not include the instruction to discourage the client from washing her hands in the teaching for a client prescribed an antidepressant. This instruction is not relevant to the medication regimen. Instead, the nurse should educate the client that it may take several weeks for the medication to take effect, to avoid alcohol, not to discontinue the medication abruptly, and that there may be an increase in energy before mood improves. Regular blood tests are not typically required for most antidepressants.

5. In the treatment of a patient with bipolar disorder experiencing a depressive episode, which medication is commonly prescribed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Fluoxetine. Fluoxetine, a commonly prescribed antidepressant, is used to manage depressive episodes in bipolar disorder. It helps alleviate symptoms of depression by increasing the levels of serotonin in the brain, which can improve mood and reduce feelings of sadness and hopelessness. While mood stabilizers like lithium are often used in bipolar disorder, for depressive episodes, antidepressants like fluoxetine are preferred to address the specific symptoms associated with depression. Valproic acid is a mood stabilizer often used in bipolar disorder to manage manic episodes. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that may be used in bipolar disorder to help control manic episodes or as an adjunctive treatment, but it is not a first-line medication for depressive episodes.

Similar Questions

A client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this symptom?
In managing a patient with anorexia nervosa, which initial treatment goal is most important?
Which drug group requires nursing assessment for the development of abnormal movement disorders in individuals taking therapeutic dosages?
When assessing a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), which symptom would the nurse most likely observe?
Which of the following is not a symptom of a panic attack?

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses