Nursing Elites

1. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

2. A patient presents in the Emergency Department immediately following a shooting incident in a school where she has been teaching. There is no evidence of physical injury, but she appears very hyperactive and talkative. Which of these symptoms manifested by the patient is an uncommon initial biological response to stress?

• A. Constricted pupils
• B. Watery eyes
• C. Palpitations
• D. Increased heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased lacrimal secretions, palpitations, and increased heart rate are common initial biological responses to stress. Constricted pupils are not typical in the initial response to stress and are more associated with the opposite response, the Rest and Digest system. Watery eyes, palpitations, and increased heart rate are indicative of the body's fight or flight response to stress. Unusual food cravings are not a typical biological response to stress.

3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

4. Which intervention focuses on managing a common characteristic of major depressive disorder associated with the older population?

• A. Conducting routine suicide screenings at a senior center.
• B. Identifying depression as a natural, but treatable outcome of aging.
• C. Identifying males as at a greater risk for developing depression.
• D. Stressing that most individuals experience only a single episode of major depression in a lifetime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting routine suicide screenings at senior centers is crucial in managing major depressive disorder in the older population. Screening helps identify individuals at risk, allows for timely intervention, and contributes to the overall well-being of older adults.

5. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an antidepressant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? Select the one that does not apply.

• A. It may take several weeks for the medication to take effect
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
• C. Discontinue the medication abruptly
• D. You may experience an increase in energy before your mood improves

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Teaching for a client prescribed an antidepressant should include several key instructions. Firstly, it's important to inform the client that it may take several weeks for the medication to take effect, so they should be patient. Secondly, they should be advised to avoid alcohol while taking the medication as it can interact negatively with antidepressants. Additionally, abrupt discontinuation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should be avoided. Lastly, clients may experience an increase in energy before their mood improves, which is a common effect of some antidepressants. Regular blood tests are not typically required for most antidepressants, but adherence to the prescribed regimen and reporting any concerning side effects to the healthcare provider are crucial.

Similar Questions