Nursing Elites

1. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

2. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Encourage participation in activities
• B. Promote adequate nutrition and hydration
• C. Monitor for suicidal ideation
• D. Discourage verbalization of feelings

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Interventions for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing a depressive episode include encouraging participation in activities, promoting adequate nutrition and hydration, monitoring for suicidal ideation, and providing a structured daily schedule. Discussing feelings is an essential part of therapy for clients with bipolar disorder, thus discouraging verbalization of feelings is not therapeutic and should not be implemented. Choice D is incorrect because it goes against the principles of therapeutic communication and emotional expression, which are crucial in managing bipolar disorder.

3. A patient with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is experiencing flashbacks. The most appropriate intervention is to:

• A. Encourage the patient to talk about the trauma.
• B. Help the patient reorient to the present.
• C. Leave the patient alone to process the flashback.
• D. Remind the patient that the flashback is not real.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient with PTSD is experiencing flashbacks, the most appropriate intervention is to help them reorient to the present. This intervention can assist in reducing the intensity of the flashback and providing a sense of safety for the patient. Choice A is incorrect because encouraging the patient to talk about the trauma during a flashback may exacerbate their distress. Choice C is incorrect as leaving the patient alone can increase their feelings of isolation and fear. Choice D is incorrect because reminding the patient that the flashback is not real may invalidate their experience and increase their sense of disconnection.

4. Adolescents often display fluctuations in mood along with undeveloped emotional regulation and poor tolerance for frustration. Emotional and behavioral control usually increases over the course of adolescence due to:

• A. Limited executive function
• B. Cerebellum maturation
• C. Cerebral stasis and hormonal changes
• D. A slight reduction in brain volume

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During adolescence, emotional and behavioral control typically improves as the cerebellum matures. The cerebellum plays a significant role in regulating emotions and behavior, contributing to the increased control seen in adolescents over time.

5. Which mood stabilizer is commonly prescribed for bipolar disorder?

• A. Sertraline
• B. Lithium
• C. Clozapine
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lithium is a well-established mood stabilizer commonly prescribed for the treatment of bipolar disorder. It helps to control manic episodes, stabilize mood swings, and reduce the risk of relapse in individuals with this condition. Sertraline is an antidepressant commonly used for treating depression, while Clozapine and Haloperidol are antipsychotic medications used for different psychiatric conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is B because it is specifically indicated and effective for bipolar disorder.

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