Nursing Elites

1. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Preference for solitary activities
• B. Detachment from social relationships
• C. Indifference to praise or criticism
• D. Anxiety in social situations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct behavior that the healthcare professional should expect in an individual with schizoid personality disorder is indifference to praise or criticism. While it is true that individuals with this disorder often exhibit a preference for solitary activities and detachment from social relationships, the key defining characteristic is their emotional detachment and lack of response to external feedback, which includes being indifferent to praise or criticism. Anxiety in social situations is not a typical feature of schizoid personality disorder.

3. A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• B. Increase intake of caffeinated beverages.
• C. Maintain consistent sodium intake.
• D. Follow a low-protein diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with bipolar disorder prescribed lithium is to maintain consistent sodium intake. Fluctuations in sodium levels can impact lithium levels, potentially leading to toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to advise the client to keep their sodium intake consistent to ensure the effectiveness and safety of the lithium therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in potassium is not directly related to lithium therapy. Increasing intake of caffeinated beverages can interfere with the action of lithium. Following a low-protein diet is not a standard recommendation for clients prescribed lithium.

4. What should the nurse include in patient education for a patient starting on bupropion for major depressive disorder?

• A. Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
• C. It may cause significant weight gain.
• D. It is used as a first-line treatment for anxiety.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients prescribed bupropion should be educated to avoid consuming alcohol while on this medication to reduce the risk of seizures. Bupropion lowers the seizure threshold, and alcohol can further increase this risk. It is important for patients to understand the potential consequences of combining bupropion with alcohol to ensure their safety and treatment effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Taking bupropion in the morning does not prevent insomnia; it is not associated with significant weight gain; and it is not a first-line treatment for anxiety.

5. Identical twins vary in their responses to stress. One twin may become anxious and irritable, while the other may withdraw and cry. How should the nurse explain these different reactions to stress to the parents?

• A. Reactions to stress are relative rather than absolute; individual responses to stress vary.
• B. It is abnormal for identical twins to react differently to similar stressors.
• C. Identical twins should share the same temperament and respond similarly to stress.
• D. Environmental influences weigh more heavily than genetic influences on reactions to stress.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individual responses to stress can vary significantly due to factors such as perception, past experiences, and environmental influences, in addition to genetic factors. It is not unusual for identical twins to exhibit different reactions to stress as their individual personalities and coping mechanisms play a significant role in how they respond to stressful situations. Choice A is the correct answer because it acknowledges the variability in responses to stress among individuals. Choice B is incorrect because it wrongly labels differing reactions in identical twins as abnormal, when in reality, it is a natural phenomenon. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes that identical twins should always have the same temperament and response to stress, which is not always the case. Choice D is incorrect because it oversimplifies the complex interplay between genetic and environmental factors in shaping responses to stress.

Similar Questions