Nursing Elites

1. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

2. When assessing a patient with schizophrenia who exhibits disorganized speech and behavior, these symptoms are classified as:

• A. Positive symptoms
• B. Negative symptoms
• C. Cognitive symptoms
• D. Mood symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Positive symptoms in schizophrenia refer to excesses or distortions in normal behavior and include symptoms like hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized speech and behavior. Disorganized speech and behavior are considered positive symptoms because they represent an excess or distortion of normal functions. Negative symptoms involve deficits in normal behavior, cognitive symptoms affect thinking processes, and mood symptoms relate to emotional experiences. Therefore, in this scenario, the disorganized speech and behavior exhibited by the patient are classified as positive symptoms.

3. Which characteristic in an adolescent female is sometimes associated with the prodromal phase of schizophrenia?

• A. Constantly afraid another student will steal her belongings.
• B. An unusual interest in numbers and specific topics.
• C. Demonstrates no interest in athletics or organized sports.
• D. Appears more comfortable among males.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the prodromal phase of schizophrenia, individuals may exhibit subtle changes in behavior or interests. An unusual interest in numbers and specific topics may be a sign of cognitive disturbances that can precede the onset of schizophrenia. While the other choices may also be observed in adolescents, an unusual interest in numbers and specific topics is more specifically linked to potential prodromal symptoms of schizophrenia.

4. A healthcare provider is providing education to the family of a client who has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. The client should avoid all stressful situations.
• B. Encourage the client to get plenty of rest.
• C. Make sure the client takes prescribed medications regularly.
• D. Provide the client with information about support groups.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Make sure the client takes prescribed medications regularly.' Consistent medication adherence is crucial in managing the symptoms and stabilizing mood in individuals with bipolar disorder. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding all stressful situations is often not feasible and not the primary treatment approach for bipolar disorder. Choice B, while important, is not as critical as ensuring medication compliance. Choice D is helpful but not as essential as medication adherence for the treatment of bipolar disorder.

5. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Venlafaxine, an SNRI, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication can cause an increase in blood pressure, particularly at higher doses. Educating the patient about this potential adverse effect is crucial to enhance awareness and monitoring for any signs or symptoms of elevated blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because venlafaxine is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension, bradycardia, or hyperglycemia.

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