which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive compulsive disorder ocd
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Practice A

1. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

2. When planning care for a client with schizophrenia, which of the following interventions should be included in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a client with schizophrenia, encouraging reality testing is essential. This intervention assists the client in distinguishing between delusions and reality, aiding in their treatment. While providing opportunities for socialization can help reduce isolation, monitoring for command hallucinations is crucial for the client's safety. Promoting adherence to the medication regimen is vital for symptom management. Addressing delusional thoughts in a therapeutic manner is preferable to outright discouragement, fostering a supportive environment for the client.

3. A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in the initial weeks of treatment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed an SSRI for major depressive disorder, the nurse should closely monitor for an increased risk of suicide, especially in younger patients, during the initial weeks of treatment. SSRIs may initially increase energy levels before improving mood, which can lead to a higher risk of suicide in some individuals. Weight loss is not a common side effect of SSRIs and may actually be a concern for some patients with major depressive disorder who experience appetite changes. Hypertension is not typically associated with SSRIs, and photosensitivity is not a common side effect of this class of medications.

4. Which of the following is not a symptom of a panic attack?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Symptoms of a panic attack include shortness of breath, dizziness, and hot flashes. Chest pain is not a common symptom of a panic attack but can be present in some cases. Euphoria is not typically associated with panic attacks.

5. Which intervention should the nurse implement when caring for a patient demonstrating manic behavior? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a patient demonstrating manic behavior, it is crucial to monitor vital signs frequently to ensure the patient's physical health is stable. Providing nutrition, such as milkshakes and protein drinks, is essential to meet the patient's dietary needs. Diminishing environmental stimuli by reducing the volume on the television and dimming bright lights can help create a calmer environment. However, keeping the patient distracted with group-oriented activities may not be the most appropriate intervention as it could potentially exacerbate the manic behavior by overstimulating the patient. Therefore, this choice is the one that doesn't apply in managing manic behavior effectively.

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