Nursing Elites

1. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

2. Natasha's husband died suddenly two months ago, and she has been overwhelmed with grief. When Natasha is subsequently diagnosed with major depressive disorder, her daughter, Nadia, makes which true statement?

• A. Depression often begins after a major loss. Losing dad was a major loss.
• B. Bereavement and depression are the same problem.
• C. Mourning is pathological and not normal behavior.
• D. Antidepressant medications will not help this type of depression.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When individuals experience a significant loss, such as the death of a loved one, it can trigger major depressive disorder. This is because the intense grief and sadness associated with the loss can lead to the development of depressive symptoms. Therefore, Nadia's statement that 'Depression often begins after a major loss' is accurate in this context.

3. Which medication is typically prescribed for the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Sertraline
• C. Methylphenidate
• D. Clozapine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant often prescribed to manage symptoms of ADHD. It works by increasing the activity of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, helping to improve focus, attention, and impulse control in individuals with ADHD. Haloperidol, Sertraline, and Clozapine are not typically used as first-line treatments for ADHD. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic used in conditions like schizophrenia, Sertraline is an antidepressant primarily for mood disorders, and Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.

4. A client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) states, 'I just can't stop worrying about everything.' Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for this client?

• A. Ineffective coping
• B. Disturbed thought processes
• C. Chronic low self-esteem
• D. Social isolation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) who expresses an inability to stop worrying about everything is 'Ineffective coping.' This diagnosis indicates the client's struggle to manage anxiety and worry effectively, which aligns with the client's statement. 'Disturbed thought processes' (Choice B) would involve disorganized or irrational thinking patterns, which are not directly related to the client's statement about excessive worry. 'Chronic low self-esteem' (Choice C) refers to a long-standing negative self-evaluation and is not the most fitting diagnosis for the client's current concern. 'Social isolation' (Choice D) pertains to a lack of social interactions and support, which is not the primary issue highlighted by the client's statement.

5. Which of the following therapies is considered the most effective for treating phobias?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is widely recognized as the most effective treatment for phobias. CBT helps individuals identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with their phobias, leading to long-lasting improvement and symptom reduction. Unlike psychoanalysis, which focuses on exploring unconscious conflicts, CBT provides practical strategies to address phobias directly. Medication management may be used in conjunction with therapy but is not typically considered a standalone treatment for phobias. Group therapy can be beneficial for some individuals, but CBT is specifically tailored to target and alleviate phobia symptoms effectively.

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