Nursing Elites

1. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

2. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?

• A. Provide a structured environment with minimal stimuli.
• B. Monitor the client closely for signs of exhaustion.
• C. Encourage the client to rest and sleep as needed.
• D. Encourage the client to engage in regular physical activity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, individuals may exhibit increased energy levels, impulsivity, and reduced need for sleep, which can lead to risky behaviors and accidents. Providing a structured environment with minimal stimuli helps to reduce the risk of overstimulation and impulsive actions, thereby promoting the client's safety. This intervention aims to create a calm and controlled setting that can prevent potential harm to the client during this phase of the disorder.

3. A nurse is providing education to a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching? Select one that does not apply.

• A. I should avoid caffeine because it can increase my anxiety.
• B. I can stop taking my medication once I feel better.
• C. Practicing deep breathing exercises can help reduce my anxiety.
• D. I should gradually face situations that cause me anxiety.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Statements indicating a need for further teaching include stopping medication once feeling better and believing that medication will always be needed. Medication should be continued as prescribed, and the need for it should be regularly re-evaluated by a healthcare provider.

4. Which behavior is consistent with therapeutic communication?

• A. Offering your opinion when asked to convey support.
• B. Summarizing the essence of the patient's comments in your own words.
• C. Interrupting periods of silence before they become awkward for the patient.
• D. Telling the patient they did well when you approve of their statements or actions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Summarizing the essence of the patient's comments in your own words is a key aspect of therapeutic communication as it demonstrates active listening and understanding. It shows the patient that their words have been heard and understood, fostering a sense of validation and empathy. Offering opinions, interrupting silence, or giving approval may not always align with the principles of therapeutic communication, which focus on patient-centered interactions and empathetic responses.

5. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, 'You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'

• A. A higher dosage
• B. Once-weekly dosing
• C. A lower dosage
• D. A different drug

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the maintenance therapy stage for bipolar I disorder, it is common to lower the dosage of lithium to prevent side effects while still maintaining stability. Lowering the dosage helps to find the lowest effective dose that can still manage symptoms effectively with minimal side effects.

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