ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. Which characteristic presents the greatest risk for injury to others in a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia?
- A. Depersonalization
- B. Pressured speech
- C. Negative symptoms
- D. Paranoia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Paranoia in patients with schizophrenia can lead to aggressive behaviors, including violence, which poses a significant risk of injury to others. Individuals experiencing paranoia may perceive others as threats and act defensively or aggressively in response, increasing the likelihood of harm to those around them.
2. When assessing a client diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which finding should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypervigilance
- B. Insomnia
- C. Flashbacks
- D. Suicidal ideation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients with PTSD commonly exhibit symptoms such as hypervigilance, insomnia, flashbacks, difficulty concentrating, and increased irritability. Hypervigilance refers to an enhanced state of awareness and alertness, often seen in individuals with PTSD as they are constantly on guard for potential threats. Insomnia is a common sleep disturbance associated with PTSD, where individuals may have trouble falling or staying asleep. Flashbacks involve re-experiencing the traumatic event as if it is occurring in the present moment. Suicidal ideation, while a serious concern in mental health, is not a hallmark symptom specifically associated with PTSD. Therefore, the correct finding that the nurse should expect when assessing a client diagnosed with PTSD is hypervigilance.
3. In a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. The client reports a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
- B. The client reports a decrease in the intensity of obsessive thoughts.
- C. The client reports an improvement in overall mood.
- D. The client reports an improvement in sleep patterns.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In clients with OCD undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors is a key indicator of treatment effectiveness. This reduction signifies progress in managing and controlling the compulsions associated with OCD, which is a primary goal of the therapy. Choices B, C, and D may also be positive outcomes of therapy, but the most critical aspect in treating OCD with cognitive-behavioral therapy is targeting and reducing the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
4. Which intervention focuses on managing a common characteristic of major depressive disorder associated with the older population?
- A. Conducting routine suicide screenings at a senior center.
- B. Identifying depression as a natural, but treatable outcome of aging.
- C. Identifying males as at a greater risk for developing depression.
- D. Stressing that most individuals experience only a single episode of major depression in a lifetime.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Conducting routine suicide screenings at senior centers is crucial in managing major depressive disorder in the older population. Screening helps identify individuals at risk, allows for timely intervention, and contributes to the overall well-being of older adults.
5. Which of the following are therapeutic communication techniques that a healthcare professional can use when interacting with clients? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Using silence
- B. Offering self
- C. Giving advice
- D. Providing reassurance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Therapeutic communication techniques aim to promote understanding and trust between the professional and the client. Using silence allows the client to process thoughts, feelings, and information. Offering self involves making oneself available and showing empathy. Providing reassurance helps instill confidence. However, giving advice can sometimes be non-therapeutic as it may undermine the client's autonomy and decision-making process.
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