ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) who has been prescribed an SSRI. Which SSRI is commonly used for this condition?
- A. Methylphenidate
- B. Sertraline
- C. Lithium
- D. Haloperidol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sertraline. Sertraline, an SSRI, is commonly used to treat generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) due to its efficacy and tolerability. Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant used for ADHD and narcolepsy, not for GAD. Lithium is mainly used for bipolar disorder, not for GAD. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication, not typically used for GAD.
2. Which of the following are NOT outcomes of a job analysis? (EXCEPT)
- A. Job specification
- B. Job evaluation
- C. Job description
- D. Job performance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Job description is actually one of the key outcomes of a job analysis. A job description details the duties, responsibilities, and requirements of a specific job role. Job specification, job evaluation, and job performance are not outcomes of a job analysis. Job specification refers to the specific qualifications and skills required for a job, job evaluation involves determining the relative worth of different jobs within an organization, and job performance relates to how well an employee is executing their job duties.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?
- A. First-degree AV block.
- B. Premature ventricular contraction.
- C. Sinus bradycardia.
- D. Atrial fibrillation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.
4. What teaching should be provided to a patient following surgical removal of a cataract?
- A. Avoid NSAIDs
- B. Wear dark glasses while outdoors
- C. Creamy white drainage is normal
- D. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct teaching to provide to a patient following surgical removal of a cataract is to avoid NSAIDs. NSAIDs can increase the risk of bleeding at the surgical site, so it is important to steer clear of them. Choice B, wearing dark glasses while outdoors, may be recommended post-surgery to protect the eyes from bright light, but it is not the priority teaching in this case. Choice C, stating that creamy white drainage is normal, is not accurate as drainage from the eye should be monitored and reported. Choice D, reducing phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day, is unrelated to post-cataract surgery care and is not a necessary teaching point.
5. What urine test result is considered abnormal?
- A. pH 4.0
- B. WBC 1 or 2 cells/ml
- C. Protein level absent
- D. Specific gravity 1.020
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A urine pH of 4.0 is abnormally low, indicating possible acidosis or other metabolic conditions. WBC count of 1-2 cells/ml, absence of protein, and a specific gravity of 1.020 are within normal limits.
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