a client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode which nursing intervention is most appropriate
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to participate in group therapy is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing a depressive episode. Group therapy provides a supportive environment where the client can share experiences, learn coping strategies, and receive emotional support from peers and mental health professionals. It can help reduce feelings of isolation, improve social skills, and enhance overall well-being. Group therapy also promotes a sense of belonging and understanding, which are essential for individuals dealing with bipolar disorder and depressive symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are not the most appropriate interventions for a client experiencing a depressive episode in bipolar disorder. Encouraging the client to avoid physical activity may worsen their symptoms, promoting social activities may not address the underlying issues effectively, and setting goals may be overwhelming during a depressive episode.

2. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

3. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this symptom?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations, providing reality-based feedback is a therapeutic intervention. This helps the client differentiate between what is real and what is not, aiding in reducing the impact of hallucinations. Encouraging the client to discuss the voices may validate the hallucinations, telling the client that the voices are not real dismisses their experience, and distracting the client may not address the underlying issue of the hallucinations.

4. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a manic episode, it is essential to provide a structured environment to help the client maintain stability. Encouraging rest periods is crucial as excessive activity during mania can lead to exhaustion. Setting limits on inappropriate behaviors helps ensure the client's safety and the safety of others. Allowing the client to engage in stimulating activities can exacerbate manic symptoms by further increasing their energy levels and impulsivity. This can lead to a worsening of the manic episode and potentially risky behaviors. Therefore, allowing the client to engage in stimulating activities is not an appropriate intervention during a manic episode.

5. A client prescribed sertraline for depression is receiving discharge instructions. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because sertraline, used for depression, typically takes several weeks to become effective. It is important for clients to understand this delayed onset of action to manage their expectations and continue taking the medication as prescribed despite not seeing immediate results.

Similar Questions

A client who experiences stress on a regular basis asks a nurse what causes these feelings. Which is the most appropriate nursing response?
What should the nurse include in patient education for a patient starting on bupropion for major depressive disorder?
A client has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Which is an appropriate short-term goal for the client?
During an assessment of a client with suspected substance use disorder, which of the following findings should the nurse expect? Select one that doesn't apply.
A client has been prescribed a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Which dietary restriction should the nurse emphasize during discharge instructions?

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses