Nursing Elites

1. Which strategy is most likely to promote positive behavior in children?

• A. Providing flexible instructions with no consequences
• B. Limiting opportunities until the child performs adequately
• C. Improving the child's competence and creating a positive environment
• D. Setting strict rules with punishments for misbehavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Improving the child's competence and creating a positive environment is the most effective strategy to promote positive behavior in children. This approach focuses on enhancing the child's skills and abilities while fostering a supportive and encouraging atmosphere. By empowering the child and surrounding them with positivity, they are more likely to exhibit positive behaviors as they feel competent, valued, and motivated. This strategy emphasizes support and reinforcement over punitive measures, leading to long-lasting behavioral improvements.

2. How do models of practice help therapists engage in sound therapeutic reasoning?

• A. They provide structure to guide thinking
• B. They address theory but not practice
• C. They predict the outcome of intervention
• D. They examine physical characteristics of the child

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Models of practice help therapists engage in sound therapeutic reasoning by providing a structured framework to guide their thinking process. These models offer a systematic approach that assists therapists in organizing their thoughts and decision-making processes during therapy sessions. By following a specific model, therapists can ensure they consider all relevant factors and make informed therapeutic choices, leading to effective interventions and better outcomes for their clients.

3. A nurse is planning care to address nutritional needs for a preschooler with cystic fibrosis. Which interventions should the nurse include in plans?

• A. Administer pancreatic enzymes 2 hours after meals.
• B. Monitor and adjust the use of pancreatic enzymes if steatorrhea develops.
• C. Encourage adequate fluid intake based on the child's needs.
• D. Increase fat content in the child's diet to 40% of total calories.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Increasing fat content in the diet is essential for meeting the high energy needs of a child with cystic fibrosis. Cystic fibrosis impairs the absorption of nutrients, particularly fats, so increasing the fat content in the child's diet to 40% of total calories helps ensure adequate caloric intake. This intervention can help maintain the child's nutritional status and support growth and development.

4. A healthcare provider at an urgent care clinic is assessing an adolescent client who has an upper respiratory tract infection. Which of the following findings should the provider recognize as a manifestation of pertussis?

• A. Inflamed throat with exudate
• B. Purulent eye drainage
• C. Dry, hacking cough
• D. Koplik spots on buccal mucosa

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Dry, hacking cough.' A dry, hacking cough is a classic manifestation of pertussis. Pertussis typically presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection, starting with a persistent, severe, and uncontrollable cough that can worsen at night. This cough is often followed by a high-pitched 'whoop' sound as the patient tries to catch their breath, hence the term 'whooping cough.' In contrast, options A, B, and D are not typically associated with pertussis. Inflamed throat with exudate may suggest a bacterial throat infection like streptococcal pharyngitis, purulent eye drainage is more indicative of a bacterial conjunctivitis, and Koplik spots on the buccal mucosa are specific to measles. Therefore, recognizing the dry, hacking cough as a manifestation of pertussis is crucial for early identification and appropriate management of the disease.

5. A healthcare professional is performing hearing screenings for children at a community health fair. Which of the following children should the professional refer to a provider for a more extensive hearing evaluation?

• A. A toddler who is 18 months old and has unintelligible speech
• B. An infant who is 3 months old and has an exaggerated startle response
• C. A preschooler who is 4 years old and prefers playing with others rather than alone
• D. An infant who is 8 months old and is not yet making babbling sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The healthcare professional should refer an infant who is not making babbling sounds by the age of 7 months to a provider for a more extensive evaluation of hearing. Babbling sounds are a developmental milestone that typically occurs by 7 months of age. Delayed or absent babbling can indicate potential hearing issues that warrant further assessment.

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