Nursing Elites

1. Which strategy is most likely to promote positive behavior in children?

• A. Providing flexible instructions with no consequences
• B. Limiting opportunities until the child performs adequately
• C. Improving the child's competence and creating a positive environment
• D. Setting strict rules with punishments for misbehavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Improving the child's competence and creating a positive environment is the most effective strategy to promote positive behavior in children. This approach focuses on enhancing the child's skills and abilities while fostering a supportive and encouraging atmosphere. By empowering the child and surrounding them with positivity, they are more likely to exhibit positive behaviors as they feel competent, valued, and motivated. This strategy emphasizes support and reinforcement over punitive measures, leading to long-lasting behavioral improvements.

2. A child receives a vaccine for MMR. Six hours after the injection, the child�s parent reports local soreness, erythema, lethargy, and a fever of 101�F to a nurse. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Give instructions on relieving symptoms with acetaminophen
• B. Seek emergency help, because these symptoms are signs of anaphylactic reaction
• C. Tell the parent that a live vaccine will cause a mild case of measles
• D. Obtain and fill out a Vaccine Adverse Event Report form

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Low-grade fever, malaise, and muscle aches are common reactions. Acetaminophen usually alleviates these problems. MMR is a live vaccine but it is attenuated or completely avirulent and does not cause measles in healthy children, only immunocompromised children.

3. Which assessment finding would necessitate action by the nurse for a 10-month-old child who is 4 hours postoperative for the placement of a urethral stent?

• A. Bloody urine
• B. One void since returning from surgery
• C. Bladder spasms responding to pharmacologic intervention
• D. Double diapering from the previous shift

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a postoperative scenario after the placement of a urethral stent, monitoring the child's voiding frequency is crucial. Having only one void since returning from surgery could indicate potential issues like urinary retention, which necessitates prompt nursing intervention to prevent complications.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of an infant who is receiving treatment for severe dehydration. The professional should identify which of the following laboratory values indicates effectiveness of the current treatment?

• A. Potassium 2.9 mEq/L
• B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• C. Urine specific gravity 1.035
• D. BUN 25 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A sodium level of 140 mEq/L within the expected reference range indicates effective treatment for dehydration. In dehydration, sodium levels are often elevated, so a normal sodium level suggests that the treatment is helping to restore the electrolyte balance in the infant's body.

5. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system plays an important role in maintaining blood pressure. Which compound in this system is most powerful at raising blood pressure?

• A. Angiotensin I
• B. Angiotensin II
• C. Angiotensin III
• D. Renin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Angiotensin II is the most potent compound in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system for raising blood pressure. It acts as a powerful vasoconstrictor, leading to increased systemic vascular resistance. Angiotensin II is formed from angiotensin I through the action of the angiotensin-converting enzyme. While renin initiates the cascade by converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, it is angiotensin II that exerts the strongest pressor effect.

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