Nursing Elites

1. In an immunization clinic, which patient will the nurse identify as not eligible to receive routine immunizations?

• A. An 8-year-old experiencing diarrhea
• B. A 2-year-old with a history of pre-term birth
• C. A 4-year-old with a fever and upper respiratory tract infection
• D. A 6-year-old who has been recently exposed to a classmate with chickenpox

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should identify the 4-year-old with a fever and upper respiratory tract infection as not eligible to receive routine immunizations. It is contraindicated to administer vaccines in the presence of moderate to severe illness, whether with or without fever, to prevent potential complications or reduced vaccine efficacy.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer ibuprofen 5 mg per kg every 6 hours PRN for temperatures above 38.0 degrees Celsius or 100.5 degrees Fahrenheit to an infant who weighs 17.6 lb. The infant has a temperature of 38.4 degrees Celsius or 101.2 degrees Fahrenheit. Available is ibuprofen liquid 100 mg/5 ml. How many milliliters should the healthcare provider administer to the infant?

• A. 12 ml
• B. 6 ml
• C. 2 ml
• D. 1 ml

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the correct dosage, first convert the infant's weight to kilograms: 17.6 lb = 8 kg. The prescribed dose is 5 mg/kg, so for an 8 kg infant, the total dose required is 40 mg. Since the available ibuprofen liquid is 100 mg/5 ml, to find out how many milliliters to administer, divide the total dose (40 mg) by the concentration of the liquid (100 mg/5 ml), which equals 2 ml. Therefore, the healthcare provider should administer 2 ml of ibuprofen to the infant.

3. Which law provides for infants and toddlers aged 0-2 who are in need of comprehensive early intervention services?

• A. IDEA- Part B
• B. IDEA- Part A
• C. IFSP
• D. IDEA- Part C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, IDEA Part C. IDEA Part C specifically focuses on providing early intervention services to infants and toddlers with disabilities. This law ensures that children aged 0-2 receive the necessary support and services to aid in their development and address any disabilities or developmental delays early on. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. IDEA Part B pertains to services for school-aged children with disabilities, IDEA Part A does not exist in the context of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA), and IFSP stands for Individualized Family Service Plan, which is a document outlining services for children from birth to age 3 who are experiencing developmental delays or disabilities, but it is not a law in itself.

4. What is the most appropriate nursing consideration for a patient who is prescribed verapamil and digoxin?

• A. Restrict intake of oral fluids and high-fiber foods
• B. Take an apical pulse for 30 seconds before administration
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of nausea, vomiting, and visual changes
• D. Hold the medications if the heart rate is greater than 110 bpm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed verapamil and digoxin, it is crucial to monitor for signs of digoxin toxicity due to the potential interaction between these medications. Verapamil can elevate digoxin blood serum levels, increasing the risk of toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and visual changes. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing consideration is to notify the healthcare provider of these symptoms. Restricting intake of oral fluids and high-fiber foods is not a specific consideration related to this medication combination. Before administering digoxin, it is essential to take an apical pulse for a full minute, not just 30 seconds, to ensure accuracy. Additionally, holding the medications if the heart rate exceeds 110 bpm is not a typical response to the combination of verapamil and digoxin, which can cause bradycardia rather than tachycardia.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing an infant who has hydrocephalus and is 6 hours postoperative following placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Decreased urine output
• B. Temperature of 37.5 degrees C (99.5 degrees F)
• C. Heart rate 130/min
• D. Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The provider should report the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid to the healthcare provider as it may indicate shunt malfunction or infection, requiring immediate attention to prevent complications. Decreased urine output, a temperature of 37.5 degrees C, and a heart rate of 130/min are common postoperative findings and may not be directly related to shunt function. While these findings should still be monitored, they do not require immediate reporting like cerebrospinal fluid leakage.

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