Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is planning care for an infant with hyperbilirubinemia receiving phototherapy. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional include in the plan?

• A. Dress the infant in light, breathable clothing.
• B. Turn and reposition the infant every 4 hours.
• C. Offer the infant frequent, small feedings.
• D. Avoid using lotions on the infant's skin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Turning and repositioning the infant every 4 hours is essential to prevent pressure sores and ensure uniform exposure to phototherapy. This practice helps prevent skin breakdown and ensures the effectiveness of the phototherapy in treating hyperbilirubinemia. Dressing the infant in light, breathable clothing (Choice A) is generally a good practice but not directly related to the effectiveness of phototherapy. Offering frequent, small feedings (Choice C) is important for infant nutrition but does not directly impact the phototherapy. Avoiding lotions on the infant's skin (Choice D) is recommended to prevent interference with the phototherapy but is not the most critical action to include in the care plan.

2. The nurse is teaching a patient with cancer about a new prescription for a fentanyl patch, 25mcg/hr. for chronic back pain. Which statement is the most appropriate to include in the teaching plan.

• A. You will need to change this patch every day, regardless of your pain level.
• B. This type of pain medication is not as likely to cause breathing problems.
• C. With the first patch, it will take about 24hrs before you feel the full effects.
• D. Use your heating pad for the back pain. It will also improve the patch�s effectiveness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Full analgesic effects can take up to 24 hours to develop with fentanyl patches. Most patches are changed every 72 hours. Has the same adverse effects as other opioids, including respiratory depression. Should avoid exposing the patch to external heat sources, because this may increase toxicity.

3. What does a Z-score of -3.00 indicate?

• A. The child's score indicates he is ahead of his peers and performing well
• B. The child's score places him within normal limits on this test item
• C. The test is inconclusive
• D. The child's score falls below the majority of his peers on this test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A Z-score of -3.00 indicates that the child's performance is significantly below the average of their peers. It represents an extreme low score, indicating a substantial deviation from the mean performance of the group.

4. A patient is taking a first-generation H1 blocker for the treatment of allergic rhinitis. It is most important for the nurse to assess for which adverse effect?

• A. Skin flushing
• B. Wheezing
• C. Insomnia
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Adverse Effect of Histamine � First Generation H1 blockers include dry mouth.

5. The healthcare professional is completing the intake and output record for a child admitted for fluid volume deficit. The child has had the following intake and output during the shift: 4 oz of Pedialyte, One-half of an 8-oz cup of clear orange Jell-O, Two graham crackers, 200 mL of D5 1/2 sodium chloride IV. Output: 345 mL of urine, 50 mL of loose stool. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional document as the client's total intake? Give the numerical answer only. Do not include any units of measurement.

• A. 440
• B. 400
• C. 410
• D. 450

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The total intake is 440 mL (4 oz of Pedialyte = 120 mL, half of an 8 oz cup of Jell-O = 120 mL, and 200 mL of IV fluids). The graham crackers are not counted as intake. Therefore, the correct answer is 440. Choice B (400) is incorrect because it does not account for the intake of Jell-O. Choice C (410) is incorrect as it does not include the Pedialyte intake. Choice D (450) is incorrect because it overestimates the total intake by including the graham crackers.

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