a nurse is planning care for an infant who has hyperbilirubinemia and is receiving phototherapy which of the following actions should the nurse includ
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare professional is planning care for an infant with hyperbilirubinemia receiving phototherapy. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional include in the plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Turning and repositioning the infant every 4 hours is essential to prevent pressure sores and ensure uniform exposure to phototherapy. This practice helps prevent skin breakdown and ensures the effectiveness of the phototherapy in treating hyperbilirubinemia. Dressing the infant in light, breathable clothing (Choice A) is generally a good practice but not directly related to the effectiveness of phototherapy. Offering frequent, small feedings (Choice C) is important for infant nutrition but does not directly impact the phototherapy. Avoiding lotions on the infant's skin (Choice D) is recommended to prevent interference with the phototherapy but is not the most critical action to include in the care plan.

2. When developing a home program for self-care, which approach is the most effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most effective approach when developing a home program for self-care is to practice the new steps with the child until they are capable of independently carrying them out at home. This method ensures that the child has mastered the skills before transitioning to independent implementation. It is essential for the child's success in self-care activities and promotes their autonomy and confidence. Requiring the parent to practice the steps regularly and track progress, introducing new programs weekly, or having the parent teach the steps without practice may not be as beneficial in fostering the child's independence and skill acquisition.

3. The patient taking spironolactone (Aldactone) makes a statement indicating effective teaching. Which statement shows understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause endocrine effects like menstrual irregularities. Therefore, the patient recognizing the need to report such changes indicates effective teaching. Choices A and B are incorrect as salt substitutes and high-potassium foods should be avoided with spironolactone. Choice D is also incorrect because diuretics, including spironolactone, are ideally taken in the morning to prevent disturbances in sleep due to nocturia.

4. While auscultating the lungs of an adolescent with asthma, what should the nurse identify the sound as?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should identify the sound heard during auscultation as tachypnea, which is characterized by a rapid, regular breathing pattern. In the case of an adolescent with asthma, tachypnea can be indicative of increased work of breathing due to airway constriction and inflammation. Biots respiration (choice A) is characterized by an irregular pattern of breathing with periods of apnea. Chaney-Stokes respiration (choice B) is a pattern of breathing characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. Bradypnea (choice D) refers to an abnormally slow breathing rate, which is not typically associated with asthma exacerbation.

5. The healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to the parent of a school-age child who has celiac disease. The healthcare provider should recommend that the parent offer which of the following foods to the child?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Celiac disease requires a lifelong gluten-free diet. Foods containing gluten such as wheat, barley, and rye should be avoided. Rice pudding is a safe option as it does not contain gluten, making it a suitable choice for a child with celiac disease.

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