a nurse is planning care for an infant who has hyperbilirubinemia and is receiving phototherapy which of the following actions should the nurse includ
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare professional is planning care for an infant with hyperbilirubinemia receiving phototherapy. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional include in the plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Turning and repositioning the infant every 4 hours is essential to prevent pressure sores and ensure uniform exposure to phototherapy. This practice helps prevent skin breakdown and ensures the effectiveness of the phototherapy in treating hyperbilirubinemia. Dressing the infant in light, breathable clothing (Choice A) is generally a good practice but not directly related to the effectiveness of phototherapy. Offering frequent, small feedings (Choice C) is important for infant nutrition but does not directly impact the phototherapy. Avoiding lotions on the infant's skin (Choice D) is recommended to prevent interference with the phototherapy but is not the most critical action to include in the care plan.

2. When planning care for a newborn with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula, which is the priority nursing diagnosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a newborn with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula is 'Risk for Aspiration' because of the potential respiratory complications associated with these conditions. The newborn is at a higher risk of aspirating oral or gastric contents due to the abnormal connections between the esophagus and trachea, posing a serious threat to the airway and lungs. Addressing this risk is crucial to prevent respiratory distress and maintain the airway's patency, making it the priority nursing diagnosis in this scenario. 'Ineffective Tissue Perfusion' is not the priority as respiratory compromise takes precedence over perfusion concerns. 'Ineffective Infant Feeding Pattern' may be relevant but addressing the risk of aspiration is more critical. 'Acute Pain' is not the priority compared to the life-threatening risk of aspiration.

3. Which level nursery classifications are housed in institutions that can provide on-site surgical repair of serious congenital or acquired malformations?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Level IV. Level IV nurseries are equipped to provide the highest level of care, including complex surgical interventions for serious congenital or acquired malformations. These nurseries have the necessary resources and expertise to manage critical cases effectively. Choice A: Level III nurseries provide advanced care for moderately ill newborns but may not have the capacity for on-site surgical repair of serious malformations. Choice B: Level I nurseries offer basic care for healthy newborns and those with minor issues, lacking the resources for surgical interventions. Choice D: Level II nurseries can manage moderately ill newborns but may not have the capability for complex surgical interventions like Level IV nurseries.

4. A 6-year-old child with daytime enuresis complains of dysuria and urgency. What does the nurse recognize these signs and symptoms indicate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs and symptoms of dysuria and urgency in a child with daytime enuresis typically indicate a urinary tract infection (UTI). These symptoms, along with urinary frequency and pain during urination, are common manifestations of a UTI in children. Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by edema, proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidemia, rather than dysuria and urgency. Acute glomerulonephritis presents with hematuria, proteinuria, hypertension, and oliguria, not dysuria and urgency. Vesicoureteral reflux can lead to recurrent UTIs but does not directly cause dysuria and urgency.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer a daily dose of digoxin. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before giving digoxin, the nurse will assess the HR and rhythm. The dosage will be held and the prescriber notified if the HR is below 60 bpm or if the cardiac rhythm has changes. Digoxin can cause bradycardia and electrical changes in the heart.

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