Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is planning care for an infant with hyperbilirubinemia receiving phototherapy. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional include in the plan?

• A. Dress the infant in light, breathable clothing.
• B. Turn and reposition the infant every 4 hours.
• C. Offer the infant frequent, small feedings.
• D. Avoid using lotions on the infant's skin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Turning and repositioning the infant every 4 hours is essential to prevent pressure sores and ensure uniform exposure to phototherapy. This practice helps prevent skin breakdown and ensures the effectiveness of the phototherapy in treating hyperbilirubinemia. Dressing the infant in light, breathable clothing (Choice A) is generally a good practice but not directly related to the effectiveness of phototherapy. Offering frequent, small feedings (Choice C) is important for infant nutrition but does not directly impact the phototherapy. Avoiding lotions on the infant's skin (Choice D) is recommended to prevent interference with the phototherapy but is not the most critical action to include in the care plan.

2. Which assessment finding for a 4-month-old infant would require further action by the nurse?

• A. The posterior fontanel is open.
• B. The infant has good head control when held upright.
• C. The infant is able to roll only from abdomen to back.
• D. The anterior fontanel is open and soft.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The posterior fontanel should be closed by 4 months of age. An open posterior fontanel at this age may indicate a delay in normal closure, which could be a cause for concern and require further evaluation by the healthcare provider to ensure proper development and growth. Choices B, C, and D are typical developmental milestones for a 4-month-old infant and do not raise immediate concerns requiring further action by the nurse.

3. The 6-year-old child scheduled for an orchiopexy shyly asks the nurse, 'What are they going to do to me 'down there'? What is the nurse's best response?

• A. They are going to fix you up 'down there'.
• B. They will move your testicle from your abdomen to your scrotum.
• C. What do you think your doctor is going to do?
• D. You shouldn't worry. Your doctor knows exactly what to do.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should encourage the child to express his thoughts and feelings about the upcoming surgery. This approach helps the child feel heard and understood while providing an opportunity to address any misconceptions or fears. By asking the child what he thinks the doctor will do, the nurse engages the child in a conversation that can help alleviate anxiety and build trust. School-age children often have fears related to bodily harm, and open communication can help alleviate such concerns. Choices A and D do not encourage open communication or address the child's concerns directly. Choice B provides too much detail that may overwhelm the child and is not age-appropriate for a 6-year-old.

4. The caregiver is providing care to a pediatric client diagnosed with inflammatory bowel disease, who is prescribed daily prednisone. Which caregiver statement regarding administration of this drug indicates correct understanding of the teaching provided by the healthcare provider?

• A. I will administer this medication between meals.
• B. I will administer this medication at bedtime.
• C. I will administer this medication one hour before meals.
• D. I will administer this medication with meals.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Prednisone should be administered with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset. Taking prednisone with food helps to minimize stomach irritation and other gastrointestinal side effects associated with the medication.

5. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse anticipate when assessing a child admitted to the hospital unit with a diagnosis of minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS)?

• A. Massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema
• B. Hematuria, bacteriuria, and weight gain
• C. Decreased urine specific gravity and increased urinary output
• D. Gross hematuria, albuminuria, and fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) is characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema. Proteinuria results from the loss of proteins, particularly albumin, in the urine, leading to hypoalbuminemia. The low oncotic pressure due to hypoalbuminemia causes fluid to shift into the interstitial spaces, resulting in edema. These clinical manifestations are classic signs of MCNS and help differentiate it from other renal conditions.

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