Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to a nursing plan of care?

• A. It contains short-term goals
• B. It is developed by the patient's physician
• C. It must be continually evaluated
• D. It contains long-range goals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A nursing plan of care is developed by the nursing staff, not the patient's physician. Choice A is correct as nursing plans of care typically include short-term goals to address immediate patient needs. Choice C is correct because nursing plans of care must be continually evaluated and adjusted based on the patient's progress. Choice D is incorrect as nursing plans of care can include both short-term and long-range goals to address the patient's overall health and well-being.

2. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Conduct physical training'?

• A. Accountability
• B. Personal/professional development
• C. Individual training
• D. Military appearance/physical condition

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because 'Military appearance/physical condition' typically involves conducting physical training to ensure personnel meet certain physical standards. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Accountability deals with being answerable for one's actions, personal/professional development focuses on individual growth and advancement, and individual training refers to specific skill development rather than physical training.

3. The nurse is administering a beta blocker to the client diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which data would cause the nurse to question administering the medication?

• A. The client’s BP is 110/70
• B. The client’s potassium level is 3.4 mEq/L
• C. The client has a barky cough
• D. The client’s apical pulse is 56

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A beta blocker should be withheld if the apical pulse is below 60, as it can further decrease the heart rate. Choice A is not a reason to question administering the medication as the blood pressure is within a normal range for a client with essential hypertension. Choice B is not directly related to the administration of a beta blocker. Choice C suggests a potential side effect of an ACE inhibitor, not a beta blocker.

4. A patient with Crohn’s disease is experiencing diarrhea. Which dietary recommendation is appropriate?

• A. High-fiber diet
• B. Low-residue diet
• C. High-fat diet
• D. High-protein diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-residue diet is appropriate for a patient with Crohn’s disease experiencing diarrhea because it helps reduce bowel movements and manage symptoms. Choice A, a high-fiber diet, can exacerbate diarrhea in Crohn’s disease due to increased bulk and fermentation in the gut. Choice C, a high-fat diet, may be hard to digest and can worsen symptoms. Choice D, a high-protein diet, can be taxing on the digestive system and may not provide the relief needed for diarrhea in Crohn’s disease.

5. For a patient with a history of liver disease, which type of diet is most appropriate?

• A. High-protein
• B. High-carbohydrate
• C. Low-protein
• D. Low-fat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a patient with a history of liver disease, a low-fat diet is most appropriate. Liver disease can impair fat metabolism, leading to fat accumulation in the liver cells and worsening the condition. A low-fat diet helps reduce stress on the liver and manage symptoms associated with liver disease. High-protein diets may not be suitable for individuals with liver disease as they can increase the risk of hepatic encephalopathy. High-carbohydrate diets may lead to insulin resistance and fat accumulation in the liver. While protein restriction may be necessary in some cases, a balanced intake of high-quality protein is essential for maintaining muscle mass and overall health, making a low-protein diet not the most appropriate choice for all patients with liver disease.

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