the client is four 4 hours post operative abdominal aortic aneurysm repair which nursing intervention should be implemented for this client
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4

1. The client is four hours post-operative abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. Which nursing intervention should be implemented for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the client's bilateral pedal pulses is essential in this situation as it helps in evaluating the peripheral perfusion and circulation in the lower extremities. This assessment is crucial to detect any signs of decreased blood flow or complications, such as arterial occlusion or thrombosis. Ambulating the client may be important in the postoperative period, but assessing pedal pulses takes priority to ensure adequate perfusion. Maintaining continuous IV heparin drip is not typically indicated immediately post-operatively for an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, as the risk of bleeding complications may outweigh the benefits. Providing a clear liquid diet is not a priority nursing intervention at this stage, as the focus should be on vascular assessment and postoperative monitoring.

2. Where do most peptic ulcers occur?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Most peptic ulcers occur in the duodenum, particularly in cases of duodenal ulcers. Peptic ulcers are most commonly found in the duodenum or the first part of the small intestine. While ulcers can also occur in the esophagus and stomach, they are predominantly located in the duodenum. Therefore, options A, B, and D are incorrect.

3. Which type of anemia is associated with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Erythropoietin deficiency anemia. Chronic kidney disease often leads to anemia due to decreased production of erythropoietin. This hormone, produced by the kidneys, stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Iron-deficiency anemia (choice A) is more commonly caused by insufficient dietary iron intake or chronic blood loss. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (choice B) is usually due to inadequate dietary intake, malabsorption, or pernicious anemia. Aplastic anemia (choice C) is a bone marrow failure disorder characterized by pancytopenia (decreased red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) rather than a deficiency in erythropoietin production.

4. A family came to the emergency department with complaints of food poisoning. Which client should the nurse see first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of food poisoning, a 2-year-old with reduced urine output is a critical finding indicating dehydration, requiring immediate attention to prevent complications. The reduced urine output is a sign of decreased fluid intake or increased fluid loss, putting the child at high risk for dehydration. This client should be seen first to assess hydration status, initiate necessary interventions, and prevent further complications. While the other symptoms presented by the other clients are concerning, the 2-year-old's decreased urine output poses the most immediate threat to their well-being.

5. A client scheduled for surgery cannot sign the operative consent form because he has been sedated with opioid analgesics. The nurse should take which best action regarding the informed consent?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In situations where a client is unable to sign the consent form, obtaining a telephone consent from a family member, with the consent being witnessed by two healthcare providers, is the best course of action. This ensures that the client's best interests are considered and that proper authorization is obtained. Option A, obtaining a court order, is not necessary in this scenario and could delay the surgery. Option B, signing the consent on behalf of the client, is not appropriate as it may raise ethical and legal concerns. Option C, sending the client to surgery without a signed consent form, is not advisable as it violates the principles of informed consent and places the client at risk.

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