which nutrient deficiency is most likely to be seen in patients with chronic alcoholism
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2

1. Which nutrient deficiency is most likely to be seen in patients with chronic alcoholism?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients with chronic alcoholism are most likely to develop a deficiency in Vitamin B1 (thiamine) due to poor dietary intake and impaired absorption. This deficiency can lead to conditions like Wernicke's encephalopathy and Korsakoff's syndrome. While deficiencies in other vitamins can also occur in chronic alcoholism, Vitamin B1 deficiency is more commonly associated with this condition, making it the most likely nutrient deficiency in these patients. Therefore, the correct answer is Vitamin B1 (Choice D). Deficiencies in Vitamin C (Choice A), Vitamin D (Choice B), and Vitamin B12 (Choice C) can also be seen in patients with chronic alcoholism, but they are not as commonly linked to this condition compared to Vitamin B1 deficiency.

2. A patient with hypothyroidism should be advised to consume more of which nutrient?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Iodine. Iodine is essential for thyroid hormone production, and its deficiency can contribute to hypothyroidism. While calcium, vitamin C, and iron are important for overall health, they are not specifically related to thyroid function. Calcium is more associated with bone health, vitamin C with immune function, and iron with red blood cell production.

3. A client is ordered lisinopril (Zestril) for the treatment of hypertension. He asks the nurse about possible adverse effects. The nurse should inform him about which common adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B, C.' Dizziness and headache are common side effects of ACE inhibitors due to their blood pressure-lowering effects. Constipation is not a common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors, so choice A is incorrect. Choice B (Dizziness) and choice C (Headache) are more commonly seen and are directly related to the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors, making them the correct choices.

4. The nurse supervises care of a client in Buck’s traction. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Turning the client to the unaffected side helps prevent complications such as pressure ulcers. Dorsiflexion of the foot on the affected leg helps maintain proper alignment and prevent foot drop. The incorrect choices are A and D. Removing the foam boot multiple times per day can disrupt traction, and asking the client to dorsiflex the foot may not be appropriate without ensuring proper alignment and direction from the healthcare provider.

5. What is the best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide the necessary exposure and access required for a thorough vaginal and cervical examination. Dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine positions may limit visibility and hinder the examination process in such cases.

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