which nutrient deficiency is most likely to be seen in patients with chronic alcoholism

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2

1. Which nutrient deficiency is most likely to be seen in patients with chronic alcoholism?

A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin B12
D. Vitamin B1

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients with chronic alcoholism are most likely to develop a deficiency in Vitamin B1 (thiamine) due to poor dietary intake and impaired absorption. This deficiency can lead to conditions like Wernicke's encephalopathy and Korsakoff's syndrome. While deficiencies in other vitamins can also occur in chronic alcoholism, Vitamin B1 deficiency is more commonly associated with this condition, making it the most likely nutrient deficiency in these patients. Therefore, the correct answer is Vitamin B1 (Choice D). Deficiencies in Vitamin C (Choice A), Vitamin D (Choice B), and Vitamin B12 (Choice C) can also be seen in patients with chronic alcoholism, but they are not as commonly linked to this condition compared to Vitamin B1 deficiency.

2. The Army Medical Department has four major functions. Three are prevention, treatment, and evacuation. What is the fourth?

A. Preparation
B. Training
C. Mobilization
D. Selection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Mobilization.' In the context of the Army Medical Department, mobilization refers to the process of preparing and organizing medical personnel and resources for deployment during military operations. While preparation, training, and selection are important functions within the military medical field, mobilization specifically relates to the readiness and deployment of medical assets in response to operational requirements, making it the fourth major function of the Army Medical Department.

3. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?

A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization
D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. This client situation presents with concerning clinical signs such as no urine output post kidney transplant, elevated temperature, tachycardia, hypotension, and restlessness, suggestive of acute renal failure and sepsis. These signs necessitate immediate intervention by the rapid response team (RRT) to address the potentially life-threatening conditions. Choice B is incorrect as the client is stable after chest tube removal and primarily anxious about going home. Choice C is incorrect as the client's symptoms are related to postoperative recovery and boredom, not indicating an urgent need for RRT consultation. Choice D is incorrect as the client post hip repair is stable, alert, and interacting normally, without signs of acute deterioration requiring RRT involvement.

4. When does the nurse act as a client advocate?

A. Pulling the curtain around the client's bed while changing a dressing
B. Contacting the health care provider to request a meeting for the client
C. Ensuring access to medical information by appropriate personnel only
D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the above.' Acting as a client advocate involves various actions to protect the client's rights and well-being. Pulling the curtain around the client's bed while changing a dressing ensures privacy and dignity. Contacting the health care provider to request a meeting for the client facilitates communication and addresses the client's needs. Ensuring access to medical information by appropriate personnel only safeguards the client's confidentiality and privacy. Therefore, all the actions mentioned in choices A, B, and C are examples of a nurse acting as a client advocate, making D the correct answer.

5. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant and interferes with the action of:

A. Platelets
B. Vitamin K
C. Calcium
D. Vitamin B12

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting the action of vitamin K, which is crucial for the synthesis of clotting factors in the blood. By interfering with vitamin K, warfarin decreases the production of these clotting factors, thereby prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. This is why individuals on warfarin therapy need to monitor their vitamin K intake. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin does not directly interfere with platelets, calcium, or vitamin B12.