ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2
1. Which nutrient deficiency is most likely to be seen in patients with chronic alcoholism?
- A. Vitamin C
- B. Vitamin D
- C. Vitamin B12
- D. Vitamin B1
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In patients with chronic alcoholism, the most likely nutrient deficiency is Vitamin B1 (thiamine), not Vitamin B12. Chronic alcoholism often leads to Vitamin B1 deficiency, causing conditions like Wernicke's encephalopathy. While other vitamin deficiencies can also occur in chronic alcoholism, such as Vitamin C and Vitamin D, Vitamin B1 deficiency is more commonly associated with alcoholism.
2. The nurse counsels a client diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse determines that teaching is effective if the client selects which of the following menus?
- A. Roast beef, brown rice, green beans, carrot and raisin salad, and milk
- B. Cheese pizza, tossed green salad, oatmeal-raisin cookie, and lemonade
- C. Two scrambled eggs, bacon, white toast with strawberry jam, and coffee
- D. Corn flakes with milk, whole wheat toast, and orange juice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Roast beef is high in heme iron, which is best absorbed and helps treat iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D do not contain significant sources of iron, especially heme iron, making them less effective in treating iron deficiency anemia.
3. A client has been given instructions about ferrous sulfate. Which statement made by the client would indicate the client needs further education?
- A. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. I will take the morning dose 1 hour before breakfast.
- C. I will need to avoid taking this medication with coffee.
- D. I will take antacids if needed, 2 hours after I take ferrous sulfate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ferrous sulfate should be taken on an empty stomach to improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as taking the medication with a full glass of milk would impair iron absorption. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding the administration of ferrous sulfate. Choice B ensures proper timing before breakfast, choice C highlights avoiding coffee due to interference with iron absorption, and choice D correctly suggests taking antacids a few hours after ferrous sulfate to prevent potential interactions.
4. How long is the Practical Nurse Course training program conducted in phases for?
- A. 46 weeks
- B. 18 months
- C. 6 weeks
- D. 52 weeks
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 52 weeks. The Practical Nurse Course is conducted over a period of 52 weeks. This duration allows for a comprehensive training program that covers all necessary aspects of practical nursing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the specific length of time associated with the Practical Nurse Course.
5. The nurse is caring for a client on strict bed rest. Which intervention is the priority when caring for this client?
- A. Encourage the client to drink liquids
- B. Perform active range of motion exercises
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
- D. Provide a high-fiber diet to the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to perform active range of motion exercises. When a client is on strict bed rest, performing range of motion exercises is a priority to prevent complications such as thromboembolism and muscle atrophy. Option A may be important but not the priority compared to maintaining mobility. Option C is incorrect because elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is not necessary for a client on strict bed rest. Option D, providing a high-fiber diet, is also not the priority intervention compared to ensuring range of motion exercises are performed.
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