Nursing Elites

1. During the cellular stage of acute inflammation, which type of cells arrive first and in great numbers?

• A. Basophils
• B. Lymphocytes
• C. Neutrophils
• D. Platelets

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the cellular stage of acute inflammation, neutrophils are the first responders. Neutrophils arrive at the site of injury in large numbers to combat pathogens and remove debris. Basophils and lymphocytes are also involved in the inflammatory response, but they are not the first to arrive. Platelets play a role in hemostasis and blood clotting, rather than being the primary cells involved in the initial inflammatory response.

2. While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:

• A. metabolic acidosis that occurs spontaneously following any dysrhythmias.
• B. interruption of the blood/oxygen supply to the brain.
• C. massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from increased perfusion.
• D. a blood clot coming from the heart and occluding the carotid arteries.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) can disrupt the normal heart function, leading to a decreased cardiac output. This decreased output can interrupt the blood supply to the brain, causing the client to become unresponsive. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is not the most likely cause of unresponsiveness in this scenario. A massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (Choice C) would not result from increased perfusion. A blood clot occluding the carotid arteries (Choice D) may lead to a stroke but is not the most likely cause of sudden unresponsiveness in this situation.

3. In which patient would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

• A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
• B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
• C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
• D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. New onset headaches in older adults, especially if worse at night, may indicate a serious condition like a brain tumor. Choice B describes symptoms commonly seen in migraines. Choice C describes tension-type headaches. Choice D describes symptoms of a menstrual migraine which is not typically associated with a serious underlying disorder.

4. What is the cause of swelling during acute inflammation?

• A. Collagenase
• B. Fluid exudate
• C. Lymphocytic margination
• D. Anaerobic glycolysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Swelling during acute inflammation is primarily caused by the accumulation of fluid exudate in the affected tissues. This fluid exudate contains proteins and cells that leak from blood vessels due to increased vascular permeability. Collagenase (Choice A) is an enzyme that breaks down collagen and is not directly responsible for swelling. Lymphocytic margination (Choice C) is the process where white blood cells line up along the blood vessel walls, which does not directly cause swelling. Anaerobic glycolysis (Choice D) is a metabolic process that occurs in the absence of oxygen and is not related to the mechanism of swelling in acute inflammation.

5. A hospital client is at a high risk of developing bacterial endocarditis. Which of the following prophylactic measures is likely to be most effective?

• A. Avoiding exposure to individuals known to carry the streptococcus bacterium
• B. Daily administration of low-dose corticosteroids
• C. Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure
• D. Routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure is the most effective measure in preventing bacterial endocarditis in at-risk individuals. This measure helps to reduce the risk of bacterial infection during invasive procedures, which can lead to endocarditis. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding exposure to individuals with streptococcus does not address the primary preventive measure needed. Choice B is incorrect as corticosteroids do not prevent bacterial endocarditis, and daily administration is not the recommended prophylactic measure. Choice D is incorrect as routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections are important for other conditions but not specifically for preventing bacterial endocarditis.

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