Nursing Elites

1. During the cellular stage of acute inflammation, which type of cells arrive first and in great numbers?

• A. Basophils
• B. Lymphocytes
• C. Neutrophils
• D. Platelets

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the cellular stage of acute inflammation, neutrophils are the first responders. Neutrophils arrive at the site of injury in large numbers to combat pathogens and remove debris. Basophils and lymphocytes are also involved in the inflammatory response, but they are not the first to arrive. Platelets play a role in hemostasis and blood clotting, rather than being the primary cells involved in the initial inflammatory response.

2. In which patients would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

• A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
• B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
• C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
• D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is the 55-year-old man with new onset headaches that worsen at night and reported mood swings according to his family. These symptoms, especially when combined with nighttime worsening and mood changes, could indicate a serious underlying disorder such as a brain tumor or increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as the unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea is suggestive of migraine headaches, which are usually not associated with serious underlying disorders. Choice C describes symptoms that are more indicative of tension-type headaches rather than a serious underlying disorder. Choice D presents symptoms that are more likely related to hormonal changes and migraines rather than a serious underlying disorder.

3. A patient is prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

• A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
• D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density, which helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. Choice A is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not primarily affect calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

4. A nurse working in a busy orthopedic clinic is asked to perform the Tinel sign on a client having problems in her hand/wrist. In order to test Tinel sign, the nurse should give the client which direction?

• A. Stand tall, arms at your side, shut your eyes; place the tip of your index finger to your nose.
• B. Hold your wrist in complete flexion, keep it in this position for 60 seconds. How does your hand feel after placing it in a neutral position?
• C. I'm going to tap (percuss) over the median nerve in your wrist; tell me what sensation you feel while I am doing this. Does the sensation stay in the wrist or go anywhere else?
• D. I'm going to tap this tuning fork; place it on the side of your thumb, then tell me what you are feeling in your hand and wrist.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The Tinel sign involves percussing over the median nerve in the wrist to test for carpal tunnel syndrome. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a different action unrelated to the Tinel sign. Choice B is also incorrect as it involves holding the wrist in flexion, which is not part of the Tinel sign assessment. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions using a tuning fork on the thumb, which is not the correct technique for assessing the Tinel sign.

5. A 50-year-old woman has had a relapse of her multiple sclerosis (MS) after several years of being symptom-free. Which of the following factors is most likely to have contributed to her relapse?

• A. Emotional stress
• B. Dietary indiscretion
• C. Physical overexertion
• D. Adequate rest and relaxation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Physical overexertion. In individuals with multiple sclerosis (MS), physical overexertion can exacerbate symptoms and contribute to a relapse. It is important for individuals with MS to balance physical activity to avoid triggering symptom reoccurrence. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the relapse. Emotional stress and dietary indiscretion may play a role in exacerbating symptoms in some individuals, but physical overexertion is more commonly associated with MS relapses. Adequate rest and relaxation are important for overall well-being but are not typically linked to MS relapses.

Similar Questions