ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. When assessing a patient experiencing breakthrough bleeding while taking oral contraceptives, what should the nurse consider?
- A. The possibility of pregnancy
- B. The patient's adherence to the medication schedule
- C. The need for an increased dosage
- D. The effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient on oral contraceptives experiences breakthrough bleeding, it is crucial for the nurse to consider the patient's adherence to the medication schedule. Breakthrough bleeding is often a sign of missed doses or inconsistent use, which can decrease the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive. Considering the possibility of pregnancy (Choice A) is important but secondary to assessing adherence. The need for an increased dosage (Choice C) is not typically the first consideration for breakthrough bleeding. Evaluating the effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive (Choice D) is relevant but should come after assessing adherence to the medication schedule.
2. Which disorder is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus organism producing a toxin leading to exfoliation and large blister formation?
- A. Herpes simplex I virus
- B. Bullous impetigo
- C. Necrotizing fasciitis
- D. Cellulitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Bullous impetigo is the correct answer because it is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus toxin that leads to exfoliation and the formation of large blisters. Herpes simplex I virus (Choice A) causes cold sores and is not associated with exfoliation and blister formation. Necrotizing fasciitis (Choice C) is a severe skin infection involving the deeper layers of skin and subcutaneous tissues, typically caused by bacteria such as Streptococcus or Clostridium species, not Staphylococcus aureus. Cellulitis (Choice D) is a common bacterial skin infection, but it does not involve exfoliation and blister formation as seen in bullous impetigo.
3. Which of the following is a common cause of secondary hypertension?
- A. Primary aldosteronism
- B. Essential hypertension
- C. White coat hypertension
- D. Prehypertension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Primary aldosteronism is a common cause of secondary hypertension. In primary aldosteronism, there is an overproduction of aldosterone from the adrenal glands, leading to increased sodium retention and potassium excretion, ultimately resulting in high blood pressure. Essential hypertension (Choice B) is the most common type of hypertension, but it is considered primary hypertension, not secondary. White coat hypertension (Choice C) refers to elevated blood pressure readings in a clinical setting due to anxiety but not in daily life. Prehypertension (Choice D) is a condition where blood pressure levels are elevated but not high enough to be classified as hypertension.
4. Which of the following describes the damage to the brain that results in cerebral palsy?
- A. Reversible with cognitive therapy in infancy
- B. Transient and resolves in adulthood through physical therapy
- C. Manifests in adulthood after regular childhood activities
- D. Irreversible and occurs before, during, or after birth or infancy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cerebral palsy involves irreversible damage to the brain that occurs before, during, or shortly after birth, impacting movement and coordination. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cerebral palsy is not reversible with cognitive therapy or physical therapy, does not resolve in adulthood, and does not manifest in adulthood after regular childhood activities.
5. Which of the following are normal arterial blood gas values?
- A. PH 7.25, PaCO2 52 mm Hg, PaO2 75 mm Hg, HCO3 18 mEq/L
- B. PH 7.50, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 80 mm Hg, HCO3 28 mEq/L
- C. PH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, PaO2 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
- D. PH 7.15, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 50 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: PH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, PaO2 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. These values represent a balanced state for arterial blood gas. Choice A has lower than normal PH and HCO3 levels and higher PaCO2 and lower PaO2 levels. Choice B has higher than normal PH and HCO3 levels, lower PaCO2, and a normal PaO2 level. Choice D has a significantly lower PH and PaO2 level, normal HCO3 level, and low PaCO2 level, indicating an acidic state with impaired oxygenation.
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