ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. When assessing a patient experiencing breakthrough bleeding while taking oral contraceptives, what should the nurse consider?
- A. The possibility of pregnancy
- B. The patient's adherence to the medication schedule
- C. The need for an increased dosage
- D. The effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient on oral contraceptives experiences breakthrough bleeding, it is crucial for the nurse to consider the patient's adherence to the medication schedule. Breakthrough bleeding is often a sign of missed doses or inconsistent use, which can decrease the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive. Considering the possibility of pregnancy (Choice A) is important but secondary to assessing adherence. The need for an increased dosage (Choice C) is not typically the first consideration for breakthrough bleeding. Evaluating the effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive (Choice D) is relevant but should come after assessing adherence to the medication schedule.
2. In which patients would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?
- A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
- B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
- C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
- D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is the 55-year-old man with new onset headaches that worsen at night and reported mood swings according to his family. These symptoms, especially when combined with nighttime worsening and mood changes, could indicate a serious underlying disorder such as a brain tumor or increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as the unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea is suggestive of migraine headaches, which are usually not associated with serious underlying disorders. Choice C describes symptoms that are more indicative of tension-type headaches rather than a serious underlying disorder. Choice D presents symptoms that are more likely related to hormonal changes and migraines rather than a serious underlying disorder.
3. A female client with bone metastases secondary to lung cancer is admitted for palliative radiation treatment and pain control. The client is currently experiencing pain that she rates at 9 out of 10. Which of the following nonpharmacologic treatments is most likely to be a useful and appropriate supplement to pharmacologic analgesia at this point?
- A. Teaching the client guided imagery and meditation
- B. Initiating neurostimulation
- C. Heat therapy
- D. Relaxation and distraction
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing high pain levels, rated at 9 out of 10. Relaxation and distraction techniques are effective nonpharmacologic interventions for managing pain. Teaching the client guided imagery and meditation (Choice A) can also be beneficial; however, in this acute situation of severe pain, relaxation and distraction techniques are more likely to provide immediate relief. Initiating neurostimulation (Choice B) and heat therapy (Choice C) may not be suitable for immediate pain relief in this scenario and are not as commonly used for managing high pain levels in palliative care settings.
4. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain about this risk?
- A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
- B. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.
- C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
- D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screenings are unnecessary.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a decreased risk of prostate cancer, making regular screenings important. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride has shown a protective effect against prostate cancer, but regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and monitoring.
5. When a healthcare professional observes muscle stiffening occurring within 6 to 14 hours after death, the healthcare professional should document this finding as _____ present.
- A. Livor mortis
- B. Gangrene
- C. Algor mortis
- D. Rigor mortis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rigor mortis. Rigor mortis is the stiffening of muscles after death, typically beginning within 6 to 14 hours. Livor mortis (choice A) refers to the pooling of blood in the lowest tissues causing discoloration, gangrene (choice B) is the death of body tissue due to lack of blood flow, and algor mortis (choice C) is the cooling of the body after death.
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