Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following mediators of inflammation causes increased capillary permeability and pain?

• A. Serotonin
• B. Histamine
• C. Bradykinin
• D. Nitric oxide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradykinin is the correct answer. It is a potent mediator of inflammation that causes increased capillary permeability and is responsible for the pain associated with inflammation. Serotonin and histamine are also mediators of inflammation, but they are not primarily known for increasing capillary permeability or inducing pain. Nitric oxide is involved in various physiological processes but is not a primary mediator of inflammation that causes increased capillary permeability and pain.

2. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for the treatment of hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this treatment?

• A. Liver dysfunction
• B. Kidney dysfunction
• C. Heart failure
• D. Pulmonary embolism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct adverse effect to monitor for during androgen therapy for hypogonadism is liver dysfunction. Androgen therapy can lead to hepatotoxicity, so monitoring liver function tests is crucial during treatment. Kidney dysfunction (Choice B), heart failure (Choice C), and pulmonary embolism (Choice D) are not commonly associated with androgen therapy and are less likely adverse effects compared to liver dysfunction.

3. A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?

• A. Hematocrit and hemoglobin
• B. ALT and AST
• C. Urine culture and sensitivity
• D. Erythrocyte count and differential

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) with symptoms of decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in great toes, assessing urine culture and sensitivity is crucial. These symptoms could indicate peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid, and rifampin can cause renal toxicity. Checking for any urinary tract infection or drug-induced nephrotoxicity is important. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the symptoms presented by the patient or the potential side effects of the medications mentioned.

4. During the home visit of a client with dementia, the nurse notes that an adult daughter persistently corrects her father’s misperceptions of reality, even when the father becomes upset and anxious. Which intervention should the nurse teach the caregiver?

• A. Anxiety-reducing measures
• B. Positive reinforcement
• C. Reality orientation techniques
• D. Validation techniques

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Validation techniques. In dementia care, using validation techniques involves acknowledging the person's feelings and reality, even if it differs from actual events or facts. It helps in reducing the client's anxiety and distress. In this scenario, the daughter persistently correcting her father's misperceptions can escalate his anxiety. Teaching the daughter validation techniques will encourage her to validate her father's feelings and perceptions, ultimately promoting a more supportive and less confrontational environment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect in this context. While anxiety-reducing measures can be beneficial, the primary issue here is the father's misperceptions being consistently corrected. Positive reinforcement focuses on rewarding desired behaviors, which is not directly related to the situation described. Reality orientation techniques involve constantly reminding the person of the correct time, place, and other details, which may not be suitable for someone with dementia experiencing distress.

5. Women who have breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation are usually:

• A. positive for human epidermal growth factor receptor 1 and 2.
• B. negative for estrogen receptor.
• C. positive for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.
• D. negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Women with breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation commonly have a triple-negative breast cancer subtype, which means they are negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2). This subtype tends to be more aggressive and harder to treat. Choice A is incorrect as they are typically negative for HER2. Choice B is incorrect because they are usually negative for estrogen receptor. Choice C is incorrect as they are usually negative for progesterone receptor and HER2.

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