Nursing Elites

1. During a follow-up visit, a patient being treated for latent tuberculosis mentions inconsistent drug intake. What should subsequent health education focus on?

• A. The importance of adhering to the treatment regimen to reduce adverse effects
• B. The necessity of consistently taking the prescribed drugs for TB cure
• C. Matching drug dosages carefully to signs and symptoms
• D. The consequence of nonadherence leading to antiretroviral use

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because consistent intake of prescribed drugs is crucial for curing tuberculosis. By emphasizing the necessity of following the treatment plan, the patient is more likely to achieve a successful outcome. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the risk of adverse effects rather than the primary goal of TB cure. Choice C is incorrect as it does not address the issue of inconsistent drug intake. Choice D is also incorrect as it introduces a different treatment (antiretrovirals) not relevant to latent tuberculosis.

2. After sustaining a concussion, a client experiences headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness. What does this indicate?

• A. Increased intracranial pressure
• B. Lower extremity compartment syndrome
• C. Consuming too much food at once
• D. Improved kidney function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The symptoms of headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness following a concussion are indicative of increased intracranial pressure. These symptoms are commonly associated with intracranial pressure elevation, which can be dangerous and requires immediate medical attention. Lower extremity compartment syndrome is characterized by severe pain and swelling in the affected limb, not the symptoms mentioned. Consuming too much food at once may lead to digestive issues but does not correlate with the symptoms described. Improved kidney function would not manifest through the symptoms mentioned after a concussion.

3. Women who have breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation are usually:

• A. positive for human epidermal growth factor receptor 1 and 2.
• B. negative for estrogen receptor.
• C. positive for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.
• D. negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Women with breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation commonly have a triple-negative breast cancer subtype, which means they are negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2). This subtype tends to be more aggressive and harder to treat. Choice A is incorrect as they are typically negative for HER2. Choice B is incorrect because they are usually negative for estrogen receptor. Choice C is incorrect as they are usually negative for progesterone receptor and HER2.

4. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during testosterone therapy in a male patient?

• A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• B. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
• D. Increased risk of bone fractures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attacks and strokes. This is why nurses should monitor for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues during therapy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of liver dysfunction, prostate cancer, or bone fractures. It is crucial for nurses to prioritize cardiovascular monitoring in patients receiving testosterone therapy.

5. A patient develops itching and burning of the vaginal vault while taking an anti-infective to treat strep throat. What fungal agent has most likely caused the burning and itching?

• A. Cryptococcus neoformans
• B. Candida albicans
• C. Aspergillus
• D. Dermatophytes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Candida albicans. Candida albicans is a common fungal agent responsible for causing vaginal yeast infections characterized by itching and burning. It is known to overgrow in the vagina, especially when the normal vaginal flora is disrupted, such as during antibiotic use. Cryptococcus neoformans is more associated with causing meningitis in immunocompromised individuals, not vaginal symptoms. Aspergillus is more commonly associated with lung infections and allergic reactions, not vaginal infections. Dermatophytes typically cause skin infections like ringworm, not vaginal symptoms.

Similar Questions