which of the following is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient on furosemide
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. Which of the following is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion in the body, causing hypokalemia. This is a significant concern as low potassium levels can result in cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is unlikely to occur as a result of furosemide use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not typically linked to furosemide use.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to take one nitroglycerin sublingual tablet every 5 minutes until the pain is relieved, up to three doses. This dosing regimen is essential for managing angina attacks effectively. Choice A is incorrect because nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be placed under the tongue for rapid absorption, not taken with food. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin tablets should be stored in their original container at room temperature, away from moisture and heat. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin typically does not cause drowsiness as a side effect.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is recovering from a myocardial infarction. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Increasing the intake of saturated fats can raise cholesterol levels, which is not recommended after a myocardial infarction. Choices A, B, and D are all appropriate statements indicating a good understanding of post-myocardial infarction care. Taking a daily aspirin can help prevent another heart attack, experiencing chest pain with exercise is a common expectation post-myocardial infarction, and participating in a cardiac rehabilitation program is important for recovery and improving heart health.

4. A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.

5. A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation is being taught about nutrition during pregnancy. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increasing folic acid intake is crucial during pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects. Option A is incorrect because calorie requirements during pregnancy vary and are generally higher than 1,200 calories per day. Option C is not specific to pregnancy nutrition teaching, although hydration is important. Option D is incorrect as iron-rich foods are typically recommended during pregnancy to prevent anemia.

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