which of the following is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient on furosemide
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. Which of the following is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion in the body, causing hypokalemia. This is a significant concern as low potassium levels can result in cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is unlikely to occur as a result of furosemide use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not typically linked to furosemide use.

2. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for a clot to form, and a therapeutic range for heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 60-80 seconds. An INR of 1.5 is not related to heparin therapy, as it is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count and potassium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for and report which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin, an antibiotic commonly used to treat UTIs, can cause photosensitivity as an adverse effect. This reaction makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight, potentially leading to severe sunburns or skin damage. It is crucial for the client to be aware of this adverse effect to take precautions and report any signs of photosensitivity promptly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, urinary frequency, and insomnia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use. While urinary frequency might be a symptom of UTI, it is not an adverse effect of the medication itself.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to flush the tube with 0.9% sodium chloride every 4 hours. This helps maintain patency and prevents clogs during enteral feedings. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to 15 degrees (Choice A) is important for preventing aspiration but is not directly related to tube care. Changing the feeding bag every 48 hours (Choice B) is not a standard practice as the bag should be changed every 24 hours to prevent bacterial growth. Administering the feeding through a large-bore syringe (Choice C) is incorrect as enteral feedings should be given through an appropriate feeding pump for accuracy and safety.

5. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators as the priority nursing intervention for a patient with an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help open the airways and improve airflow, which is crucial in managing acute asthma symptoms. Administering corticosteroids (Choice B) is also important in the treatment plan, but it is not the priority intervention during an acute attack. Providing supplemental oxygen (Choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority initial intervention. Starting IV fluids (Choice D) is not typically indicated as a priority intervention for an acute asthma attack.

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