Nursing Elites

1. What is the best position for a patient in respiratory distress?

• A. Semi-Fowler's position
• B. Trendelenburg position
• C. Prone position
• D. Supine position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best position for a patient in respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and eases breathing by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position (choice B) where the patient's feet are higher than the head is not recommended in respiratory distress as it may cause increased pressure on the chest and reduced lung expansion. The prone position (choice C) lying on the stomach is also not optimal for respiratory distress as it can further compromise breathing. The supine position (choice D) lying flat on the back is not ideal as it may impair breathing by restricting chest expansion.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a high-protein diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Almonds
• B. Cheddar cheese
• C. Chicken breast
• D. Pasta

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chicken breast is an excellent choice for a high-protein diet as it is a lean source of protein. Almonds, while a good source of protein, also contain high amounts of fat. Cheddar cheese is high in protein but also high in saturated fat. Pasta is not a significant source of protein compared to chicken breast.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent catheter-associated infections?

• A. Change the catheter every 24 hours
• B. Ensure the drainage bag is positioned above the bladder
• C. Perform routine irrigation of the catheter
• D. Empty the drainage bag every 4 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the drainage bag is positioned above the bladder. This positioning prevents urine reflux into the bladder, reducing the risk of catheter-associated infections. Changing the catheter too frequently (Choice A) can actually increase the risk of infection by introducing pathogens. Performing routine catheter irrigation (Choice C) is no longer recommended as it can increase the risk of infection by introducing bacteria. Emptying the drainage bag every 4 hours (Choice D) is a standard practice to prevent urinary stasis but is not directly related to preventing catheter-associated infections.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Platelets
• C. aPTT
• D. INR

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT. Monitoring the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is crucial when a client is receiving heparin therapy. The aPTT reflects the clotting time and helps assess the effectiveness of heparin in preventing clot formation. Keeping the aPTT within the therapeutic range ensures that the medication is working optimally. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, platelets, and INR are not direct indicators of heparin's effectiveness or therapeutic range.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new temporary synchronous pacemaker. Which of the following should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. The client's pulse oximetry level is 96%.
• B. The client develops hiccups.
• C. The ECG shows pacing spikes after the QRS complex.
• D. The client's heart rate is 90 beats per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pacing spikes after the QRS complex indicate a malfunction of the pacemaker and should be reported. Choice A is not directly related to the pacemaker function. Choice B, hiccups, are common and not typically associated with pacemaker issues. Choice D, a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, is within the normal range and does not indicate a pacemaker malfunction.

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