what should the nurse monitor for a patient receiving furosemide
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. What should the healthcare provider monitor for a patient receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels when a patient is receiving furosemide because furosemide can cause potassium depletion. It is essential to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications such as hypokalemia. While monitoring urine output is important in assessing kidney function, and monitoring blood pressure and serum creatinine are relevant in certain situations, the priority when administering furosemide is to monitor potassium levels due to the medication's potential to deplete potassium.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. The client's platelet count is 25,000/mm3. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with a low platelet count are at risk of bleeding and infection. Monitoring the client's temperature every 4 hours is crucial to detect early signs of infection, as they may not be able to mount a typical immune response due to their compromised platelet count. Administering aspirin (choice A) is contraindicated in clients with low platelet counts as it can further increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and checking for stool in a colostomy bag (choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority in a client with low platelet count.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has chronic kidney disease. The client's potassium level is 6.5 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is used to treat hyperkalemia by promoting the excretion of potassium. Choice A, administering sodium bicarbonate, is incorrect as it is not used to treat hyperkalemia. Choice C, administering calcium gluconate, is incorrect as it is used to treat hypocalcemia, not hyperkalemia. Choice D, administering calcium carbonate, is incorrect as it is used to treat conditions like osteoporosis and indigestion, not hyperkalemia.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A cool left foot indicates impaired circulation, which could be a sign of compartment syndrome or impaired blood flow. This finding should be reported to the provider promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Serous drainage on the dressing is expected postoperatively and is not a concerning finding. A capillary refill of 2 seconds is within the normal range (less than 3 seconds is normal), indicating adequate peripheral perfusion. A heart rate of 62/min is also within the normal range for an adult, suggesting no immediate concern related to the surgery.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for atorvastatin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid drinking grapefruit juice while taking this medication.' Grapefruit juice can increase the risk of toxicity when taken with atorvastatin. Choice B is incorrect because atorvastatin should be taken without regard to meals. Choice C is incorrect because atorvastatin can be taken at any time of the day. Choice D is incorrect because atorvastatin does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.

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