Nursing Elites

1. What should the healthcare provider monitor for a patient receiving furosemide?

• A. Monitor urine output
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor serum creatinine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels when a patient is receiving furosemide because furosemide can cause potassium depletion. It is essential to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications such as hypokalemia. While monitoring urine output is important in assessing kidney function, and monitoring blood pressure and serum creatinine are relevant in certain situations, the priority when administering furosemide is to monitor potassium levels due to the medication's potential to deplete potassium.

2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Baked chicken
• B. Bananas
• C. Lean cuts of beef
• D. Canned soup

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Canned soup. Canned soups are typically high in sodium, which can lead to fluid retention in clients with chronic kidney disease. Sodium restriction is crucial in managing this condition. Choice A, baked chicken, is a lean protein source that is generally recommended for individuals with kidney disease. Bananas (Choice B) are high in potassium, so clients with kidney disease may need to limit their intake depending on their individual treatment plan. Lean cuts of beef (Choice C) can be a good source of protein and iron for clients with kidney disease as long as portion sizes are controlled to manage protein intake.

3. A nurse is assessing a newborn immediately following birth. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Acrocyanosis
• B. Vernix caseosa
• C. A respiratory rate of 50/min
• D. Heart rate of 160/min

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, a heart rate of 160/min. A heart rate of 160/min in a newborn exceeds the normal range and could indicate potential issues that need further evaluation by the provider. Acrocyanosis (choice A) is a common finding in newborns and is not concerning. Vernix caseosa (choice B) is a white, cheesy substance found on newborn skin and is a normal finding. While a respiratory rate of 50/min (choice C) is slightly elevated, it is not as concerning as a high heart rate in a newborn.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Weight gain.
• B. Dry skin.
• C. Cold intolerance.
• D. Tachycardia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tachycardia. In clients with hyperthyroidism, tachycardia is a common finding due to the increased metabolic rate. Weight loss and heat intolerance are also expected due to the elevated metabolism. Choices A, B, and C (Weight gain, dry skin, cold intolerance) are not typical findings in hyperthyroidism, as the condition is associated with an overactive thyroid gland leading to an increase in metabolic functions.

5. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient for dehydration?

• A. Check for skin turgor
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Check for dry mucous membranes
• D. Monitor urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Checking for skin turgor is a reliable method to assess dehydration in patients. Skin turgor refers to the skin's elasticity and hydration status. When a healthcare professional gently pinches the skin on the back of the patient's hand or forearm, dehydration is indicated by the skin not snapping back immediately. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is important but is more indicative of cardiovascular status rather than dehydration specifically. Checking for dry mucous membranes (choice C) can be a sign of dehydration, but skin turgor is a more direct assessment. Monitoring urine output (choice D) is also essential but may not provide immediate feedback on hydration status as skin turgor does.

Similar Questions