ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. What should the healthcare provider monitor for a patient receiving furosemide?
- A. Monitor urine output
- B. Monitor blood pressure
- C. Monitor potassium levels
- D. Monitor serum creatinine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels when a patient is receiving furosemide because furosemide can cause potassium depletion. It is essential to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications such as hypokalemia. While monitoring urine output is important in assessing kidney function, and monitoring blood pressure and serum creatinine are relevant in certain situations, the priority when administering furosemide is to monitor potassium levels due to the medication's potential to deplete potassium.
2. What lab value should a healthcare provider monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy?
- A. Potassium
- B. PT/INR
- C. Sodium
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT/INR. When a patient is on warfarin therapy, healthcare providers monitor the PT/INR levels to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and assess the risk of bleeding. Monitoring potassium, sodium, or calcium levels is not directly related to warfarin therapy and would not provide the necessary information needed to manage the medication effectively.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Nuchal rigidity.
- B. Flaccid paralysis.
- C. Bradycardia.
- D. Hypothermia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Nuchal rigidity is a classic sign of bacterial meningitis and indicates inflammation of the meninges. It is characterized by neck stiffness and pain upon neck flexion. Flaccid paralysis (Choice B) is not typically associated with bacterial meningitis but rather conditions like Guillain-Barre syndrome. Bradycardia (Choice C) and hypothermia (Choice D) are not commonly seen in bacterial meningitis; instead, patients may present with fever, tachycardia, and signs of systemic inflammation.
4. What is the most important nursing action for a patient experiencing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Administer anticoagulants
- B. Encourage ambulation
- C. Apply compression stockings
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering anticoagulants is the most crucial nursing action for a patient experiencing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Anticoagulants help prevent further clot formation and reduce the risk of complications such as pulmonary embolism. Encouraging ambulation, applying compression stockings, and monitoring oxygen saturation are important interventions in managing DVT, but administering anticoagulants takes priority as it directly targets the clotting process and prevents clot progression.
5. A charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about clients designating a health care proxy. Which of the following information should the charge nurse include?
- A. The proxy should make health care decisions for the client regardless of the client's ability to do so
- B. The proxy can make financial decisions if the need arises
- C. The proxy can make treatment decisions if the client is under anesthesia
- D. The proxy should manage legal issues for the client
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the health care proxy can make treatment decisions for the client if the client is under anesthesia. This aligns with the concept of durable power of attorney for health care, where the proxy is authorized to make health care decisions when the client is unable to do so. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because the proxy should make health care decisions only when the client is unable to do so. Choice B is incorrect as financial decisions are not typically within the scope of a health care proxy. Choice D is incorrect as managing legal issues is not the primary role of a health care proxy.
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