Nursing Elites

1. All of the following statements are true about donning sterile gloves except:

• A. The first glove should be picked up by grasping the inside of the cuff.
• B. The second glove should be picked up by inserting the gloved fingers under the cuff outside the glove.
• C. The gloves should be adjusted by sliding the gloved fingers under the sterile cuff and pulling the glove over the wrist.
• D. The inside of the glove is considered sterile.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When donning sterile gloves, it is essential to maintain sterility. The correct way to don sterile gloves includes grasping the outside of the cuff to put on the first glove and inserting the gloved fingers under the cuff outside the glove to put on the second glove. Adjustments should be made by sliding the fingers under the sterile cuff. It is crucial to remember that once the inside of the glove is touched during the donning process, it is no longer considered sterile.

2. A client who wears glasses is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Store the glasses in a labeled case.
• B. Clean the glasses with hot water
• C. Clean the glasses with a paper towel.
• D. Store the glasses on the bedside table.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to store the client's glasses in a labeled case to ensure they are kept safe and protected from damage. Storing them in a case helps prevent scratches, breakage, or misplacement. This practice promotes proper eyewear hygiene and ensures the client has their glasses readily available when needed. Cleaning the glasses with hot water or a paper towel can potentially damage the lenses or frames. Storing the glasses on the bedside table increases the risk of misplacement or damage.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional not expect to find?

• A. Bradypnea
• B. Pleural friction rub
• C. Petechiae
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a pulmonary embolism, bradypnea, which is abnormally slow breathing, is not an expected finding. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with tachypnea (rapid breathing) due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen levels. Pleural friction rub, petechiae, and tachycardia are commonly associated with a pulmonary embolism due to the impaired oxygenation and increased workload on the heart. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not expect to find bradypnea during the assessment of a client with a pulmonary embolism.

4. A client experiencing acute dyspnea and diaphoresis reports anxiety and difficulty breathing. Vital signs include HR 117/min, respirations 38/min, temperature 38.4 C (101.2 F), and blood pressure 100/54 mm Hg. What should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Notify the provider.
• B. Administer heparin via IV infusion.
• C. Administer oxygen therapy.
• D. Obtain a spiral CT scan.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with acute dyspnea, diaphoresis, tachycardia, tachypnea, fever, and hypotension, the priority is to ensure adequate oxygenation. Administering oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation levels and stabilize the client's condition. This intervention takes precedence over notifying the provider, administering heparin, or obtaining a CT scan, as oxygen therapy addresses the client's immediate need for respiratory support.

5. Which of the following is the correct meaning of CBR?

• A. Cardiac Board Room
• B. Complete Bathroom
• C. Complete Bed Rest
• D. Complete Board Room

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In medical terminology, 'CBR' stands for Complete Bed Rest. This term indicates the necessity for a patient to remain in bed without engaging in any physical activities beyond what is essential for daily living, to aid in the recovery process or to prevent further health complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the medical meaning of CBR.

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