ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. All of the following statements are true about donning sterile gloves except:
- A. The first glove should be picked up by grasping the inside of the cuff.
- B. The second glove should be picked up by inserting the gloved fingers under the cuff outside the glove.
- C. The gloves should be adjusted by sliding the gloved fingers under the sterile cuff and pulling the glove over the wrist.
- D. The inside of the glove is considered sterile.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When donning sterile gloves, it is essential to maintain sterility. The correct way to don sterile gloves includes grasping the outside of the cuff to put on the first glove and inserting the gloved fingers under the cuff outside the glove to put on the second glove. Adjustments should be made by sliding the fingers under the sterile cuff. It is crucial to remember that once the inside of the glove is touched during the donning process, it is no longer considered sterile.
2. When applying Nagele's rule, a healthcare professional is estimating a client's expected date of delivery based on their last menstrual period, which began on April 12th. What date should the healthcare professional determine to be the client's expected delivery date? (Use mmdd format.)
- A. 119
- B. 121
- C. 115
- D. 122
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the expected delivery date using Nagele's rule, begin by subtracting 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual period (April 12th), which results in January 12th. Then, add 7 days. Therefore, the expected delivery date would be January 19th (0119). This calculation method helps healthcare professionals estimate the client's due date.
3. What is the primary purpose of a platelet count?
- A. Assessing clot formation potential
- B. Assessing bleeding risk
- C. Detecting antigen-antibody response
- D. Identifying cardiac enzymes presence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A platelet count is primarily used to assess the risk of bleeding. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, so a low platelet count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels helps healthcare providers evaluate a patient's ability to form clots and manage bleeding.
4. What is the best description of resonance?
- A. Sounds created by air-filled structures
- B. Short, high-pitched, and thudding
- C. Moderately loud with a musical quality
- D. Drum-like
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Resonance refers to the quality of sound produced by vibrations that are reinforced by other vibrations of the same frequency. In the context of the human body, resonance is often associated with sounds produced by air-filled structures like the lungs, vocal cords, and resonating cavities. Therefore, the best description of resonance from the given options is 'Sounds created by air-filled structures.' This choice aligns with the concept of resonance as it relates to sound production in the human body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically relate to the concept of resonance or its association with air-filled structures.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. WBC count 8,000/mm�
- B. Platelets 150,000/mm�
- C. Aspartate aminotransferase 10 units/L
- D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with rheumatoid arthritis, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a common finding and indicates inflammation in the body. A high ESR value suggests active disease activity and potential joint damage. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report an ESR of 75 mm/hr to the provider for further evaluation and management of the client's rheumatoid arthritis.
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