Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements is incorrect about a patient with dysphagia?

• A. The patient will find pureed or soft foods, such as custards, easier to swallow than water
• B. Fowler’s or semi Fowler’s position reduces the risk of aspiration during swallowing
• C. The patient should always feed himself
• D. The nurse should perform oral hygiene before assisting with feeding

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The incorrect statement is that 'The patient should always feed himself.' Patients with dysphagia may require assistance with feeding due to difficulty in swallowing safely. It is essential to provide appropriate support and supervision during meal times to prevent complications such as aspiration or inadequate nutrition intake.

2. A nurse is providing teaching about gastrostomy tube feedings to the parents of a school-age child. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give?

• A. Administer the feeding over 30 minutes
• B. Place the child in a supine position after the feeding
• C. Change the feeding bag and tubing every 3 days
• D. Warm the formula in a warm water bath before administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the feeding over 30 minutes helps prevent complications such as aspiration. Placing the child in an upright position after the feeding is recommended to reduce the risk of aspiration. It is essential to change the feeding bag and tubing every 3 days to maintain asepsis and prevent infections. Warming the formula in a warm water bath is the correct method as using a microwave can create hot spots that may burn the child's mouth or throat.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an autologous blood product to a client. Which of the following actions should the professional take to identify the client?

• A. Match the client's blood type with the type and cross-match specimens
• B. Confirm the provider's prescription matches the number on the blood component
• C. Ask the client to state their blood type and the date of their last blood donation
• D. Ensure that the client's identification band matches the number on the blood unit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer an autologous blood product, it is crucial to correctly identify the client to prevent errors. Matching the client's blood type with the type and cross-match specimens ensures that the blood product is intended for the correct recipient. This step helps in verifying the patient's identity and avoiding any transfusion-related complications. Confirming the blood type through type and cross-matching is a standard practice to ensure patient safety during blood transfusions.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. WBC count 8,000/mm�
• B. Platelets 150,000/mm�
• C. Aspartate aminotransferase 10 units/L
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with rheumatoid arthritis, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a common finding and indicates inflammation in the body. A high ESR value suggests active disease activity and potential joint damage. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report an ESR of 75 mm/hr to the provider for further evaluation and management of the client's rheumatoid arthritis.

5. Which of the following is not a cause of tachycardia?

• A. Fever
• B. Exercise
• C. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation
• D. Parasympathetic nervous system stimulation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tachycardia is an increased heart rate, and it can be caused by various factors such as fever, exercise, and sympathetic nervous system stimulation, all of which tend to increase heart rate. However, parasympathetic nervous system stimulation typically slows the heart rate, making it the exception among the choices provided. Thus, parasympathetic nervous system stimulation is not a cause of tachycardia.

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