Nursing Elites

1. When preparing to administer parenteral acyclovir (Zovirax) to an 80-year-old patient with chronic renal failure and herpes simplex, what would the nurse expect in regard to the dose?

• A. The dose is smaller due to the herpes simplex infection.
• B. The dose is smaller based on the patient's kidney function.
• C. The dose is higher in treating genital herpes.
• D. The dose is higher if the creatinine clearance is above 4.0 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with chronic renal failure, especially in older adults, dosages of medications excreted renally need to be adjusted based on kidney function. Acyclovir is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, so in a patient with chronic renal failure, the dose would need to be smaller to prevent drug accumulation and toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because the dose adjustment is more related to the patient's kidney function than the presence of herpes simplex. Choice C is incorrect because the type of herpes infection does not determine the dose adjustment for acyclovir. Choice D is incorrect as the creatinine clearance is a more accurate measure of kidney function compared to creatinine levels.

2. A patient is being treated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for menopausal symptoms. What are the risks associated with long-term HRT that the nurse should discuss with the patient?

• A. HRT may increase the risk of cardiovascular events and breast cancer.
• B. HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. HRT may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
• D. HRT may improve mood and energy levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Long-term HRT is associated with increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer. These risks should be discussed with the patient to ensure they are informed about the potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because HRT does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may increase the risk of certain conditions like cardiovascular events. Choice C is incorrect as HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, not a decreased risk. Choice D is incorrect because while HRT may have positive effects like improving symptoms of menopause, it is not primarily indicated for improving mood and energy levels.

3. Anemia of chronic inflammation is generally classified as:

• A. hypochromic and microcytic.
• B. hypochromic and macrocytic.
• C. normochromic and microcytic.
• D. normochromic and normocytic.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anemia of chronic inflammation is characterized by normochromic and normocytic red blood cells. In chronic inflammation, the body typically produces enough red blood cells, but they are often smaller and paler than normal (normocytic and normochromic). Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because hypochromic and microcytic, hypochromic and macrocytic, and normochromic and microcytic anemias are not typically associated with chronic inflammation.

4. A 30-year-old male is being treated with testosterone enanthate for delayed puberty. What side effect should the nurse inform the patient about?

• A. Increased libido
• B. Decreased muscle mass
• C. Breast tenderness
• D. Increased aggression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct side effect that the nurse should inform the patient about when receiving testosterone enanthate therapy for delayed puberty is increased aggression. Testosterone therapy can lead to mood changes, including increased aggression in some individuals. Therefore, it is essential for healthcare providers to educate patients about this potential side effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because testosterone therapy is more likely to increase libido, promote muscle mass growth, and may cause breast tenderness due to hormonal imbalances.

5. A patient is prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

• A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
• D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density, which helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. Choice A is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not primarily affect calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

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