ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5
1. Which of the following is NOT one of the major duties of the M6 practical nurse?
- A. Performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures
- B. Managing other paraprofessional personnel
- C. Managing ward or unit operations
- D. Implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations is not a major duty of the M6 practical nurse. The M6 practical nurse is primarily responsible for performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures (A), managing other paraprofessional personnel (B), and managing ward or unit operations (C). The duties mentioned in choices A, B, and C align with the roles typically assigned to a practical nurse, making them incorrect answers for this question.
2. The client is admitted to the emergency department complaining of acute epigastric pain and reports vomiting a large amount of bright red blood at home. Which interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Assess the client’s vital signs
- B. Start an IV with an 18-gauge needle
- C. Begin iced saline lavage
- D. A, B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct interventions for a client presenting with acute epigastric pain and vomiting bright red blood are to assess the client’s vital signs and start an IV with an 18-gauge needle. Assessing vital signs helps in determining the client's current condition and response to treatment, while starting an IV is crucial for administering medications and fluids. Beginning iced saline lavage is not appropriate in this situation as the priority is to stabilize the client and address potential bleeding. Therefore, options A and B are correct choices, making option D the most appropriate answer.
3. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?
- A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
- B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
- C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization
- D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. This client situation presents with concerning clinical signs such as no urine output post kidney transplant, elevated temperature, tachycardia, hypotension, and restlessness, suggestive of acute renal failure and sepsis. These signs necessitate immediate intervention by the rapid response team (RRT) to address the potentially life-threatening conditions. Choice B is incorrect as the client is stable after chest tube removal and primarily anxious about going home. Choice C is incorrect as the client's symptoms are related to postoperative recovery and boredom, not indicating an urgent need for RRT consultation. Choice D is incorrect as the client post hip repair is stable, alert, and interacting normally, without signs of acute deterioration requiring RRT involvement.
4. What is the primary goal of care for a client diagnosed with sickle cell anemia?
- A. The client will call the healthcare provider if feeling ill.
- B. The client will be compliant with the medical regimen.
- C. The client will live as normal a life as possible.
- D. The client will verbalize understanding of treatments.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The client will live as normal a life as possible.' For a client with sickle cell anemia, the primary goal of care is to promote a good quality of life by managing symptoms, preventing crises, and enhancing overall well-being. Option A is incorrect as it focuses on a specific action rather than the overall goal of care. Option B is important but not the primary goal; compliance is a means to achieve better health outcomes. Option D is also important but does not address the holistic approach of helping the client maintain a normal lifestyle despite their condition.
5. Which of the following is NOT a terminal learning objective for Phase I of the M6 Practical Nurse Course?
- A. Identify principles of basic-level anatomy, physiology, microbiology, and nutrition
- B. Perform basic-level pharmacological calculations
- C. Integrate the knowledge of drug therapy into nursing practice
- D. Identify basic principles of field nursing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Integrating drug therapy knowledge is not a terminal learning objective for Phase I of the M6 Practical Nurse Course. Choices A, B, and D are all relevant terminal learning objectives for Phase I, focusing on understanding basic-level anatomy, physiology, microbiology, nutrition, performing pharmacological calculations, and identifying basic principles of field nursing, respectively.
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