Nursing Elites

1. After a pericardiocentesis, what interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour
• B. Evaluate the client’s cardiac rhythm
• C. Record the amount of fluid removed as output
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a pericardiocentesis, the nurse should implement multiple interventions to monitor the client's condition closely. Monitoring vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour is crucial to detect any immediate changes that may indicate complications. Evaluating the client's cardiac rhythm is important to identify any arrhythmias that may occur due to the procedure. Recording the amount of fluid removed is essential to calculate fluid balance and ensure accurate monitoring of the client's status. Therefore, all the interventions mentioned are necessary to detect and manage any potential issues post-pericardiocentesis. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of post-procedural care and should be implemented to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

2. What is the primary goal of care for a client diagnosed with sickle cell anemia?

• A. The client will call the healthcare provider if feeling ill.
• B. The client will be compliant with the medical regimen.
• C. The client will live as normal a life as possible.
• D. The client will verbalize understanding of treatments.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The client will live as normal a life as possible.' For a client with sickle cell anemia, the primary goal of care is to promote a good quality of life by managing symptoms, preventing crises, and enhancing overall well-being. Option A is incorrect as it focuses on a specific action rather than the overall goal of care. Option B is important but not the primary goal; compliance is a means to achieve better health outcomes. Option D is also important but does not address the holistic approach of helping the client maintain a normal lifestyle despite their condition.

3. Whenever possible, patients evacuated from the theater of operations who are expected to return within 60 days are admitted to which of the following?

• A. Civilian hospitals participating in the National Disaster Medical System
• B. DOD tri-service hospitals
• C. Department of Veterans Affairs hospitals
• D. Temporary field hospitals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients evacuated from the theater of operations and expected to return within 60 days are admitted to DOD tri-service hospitals. These hospitals are well-equipped to handle military personnel and are strategically placed for operational efficiency. Choice A, civilian hospitals participating in the National Disaster Medical System, may not have the specialized care and resources required for military personnel. Choice C, Department of Veterans Affairs hospitals, cater to veterans rather than active-duty personnel in theater. Choice D, temporary field hospitals, might not provide the comprehensive care and resources needed for an extended period of treatment.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who takes an antidepressant and oral contraceptives. Which herbal supplement should the healthcare provider educate the client about due to a drug-herb interaction?

• A. Iron supplement
• B. Garlic
• C. Green tea
• D. St. John’s Wort

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, St. John’s Wort. St. John’s Wort can interact with antidepressants and oral contraceptives, potentially reducing their efficacy. Iron supplement, garlic, and green tea are not typically known to have significant interactions with antidepressants or oral contraceptives, making them less likely to impact the client's treatment.

5. The nurse is analyzing laboratory values for the assigned clients. Which finding, based on the client's medical history, indicates the need for immediate follow-up?

• A. Client with chronic kidney disease and serum creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL
• B. Client with diabetes mellitus and a glycosylated hemoglobin A (HbA1c) of 7.0%
• C. Client with heart failure and a B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) of 140 pg/mL
• D. Client who is male and has anemia with hemoglobin of 16.5 g/dL and hematocrit of 45%

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An HbA1c of 7.0% in a client with diabetes mellitus indicates poor long-term glucose control, necessitating immediate follow-up. Elevated HbA1c levels suggest a higher average blood sugar over the past 2-3 months, increasing the risk of complications associated with diabetes. Choices A, C, and D do not require immediate follow-up based solely on the provided information. A serum creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL in a client with chronic kidney disease, a BNP of 140 pg/mL in a client with heart failure, and hemoglobin of 16.5 g/dL and hematocrit of 45% in a male client with anemia are within acceptable ranges or do not indicate an urgent need for intervention.

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