in assessing the clients chest which position best show chest expansion as well as its movements
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5

1. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

2. The nurse supervises care of a client who is receiving enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because elevating the head of the bed reduces the risk of aspiration, and warming the formula to room temperature helps prevent discomfort and complications. Choice A is incorrect as only licensed healthcare professionals should aspirate and measure the amount of gastric aspirate. Choice B is correct as it helps prevent aspiration. Choice C is correct as warming the formula can prevent discomfort.

3. Which instructions should the nurse discuss with the client diagnosed with Raynaud’s phenomenon?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client diagnosed with Raynaud’s phenomenon is to wear extra warm clothing during cold exposure. This is essential in preventing vasospasms triggered by cold temperatures, which can worsen symptoms of Raynaud's phenomenon. Choice A is incorrect because exacerbations can occur in any season. Choice B is irrelevant and not directly related to managing Raynaud's phenomenon. Choice D is also incorrect as sunlight exposure does not significantly impact Raynaud's phenomenon.

4. A client who is postpartum and has been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is receiving education from a nurse. Which dietary recommendation should be included in the education plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Spinach and beef.' Spinach and beef are high in iron, which is crucial for treating iron deficiency anemia. Spinach is a good source of non-heme iron, while beef provides heme iron, making them effective choices to increase iron levels in the body. Yogurt and mozzarella (Choice A), fish and cottage cheese (Choice C), and turkey slices and milk (Choice D) do not contain as high iron content as spinach and beef, making them less effective in addressing iron deficiency anemia.

5. What is a good source of potassium and can be related to increased excretion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Broccoli is a good source of potassium and can contribute to increased excretion. While potassium itself is a mineral and increased excretion can be related to dietary intake, the specific relationship mentioned in the text is about broccoli being a good source of potassium and having a potential impact on excretion.

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