in assessing the clients chest which position best show chest expansion as well as its movements
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5

1. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

2. The nurse prepares to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a newborn with a diagnosis of heart failure and notes that the apical rate is 140 beats per minute. Which nursing action is appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An apical rate of 140 bpm is within the normal range for a newborn. Digoxin is commonly used to treat heart failure by increasing the strength and efficiency of the heart's contractions. Since the heart rate is within the normal range, there is no need to hold the medication or notify the healthcare provider. Rechecking the apical rate in an hour is unnecessary as the heart rate is not alarming. Therefore, the appropriate nursing action is to administer the digoxin.

3. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Educate personnel on UCMJ'?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Personal/professional development. Educating personnel on UCMJ falls under the category of personal/professional development as it involves enhancing their understanding of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. This category focuses on improving individuals' knowledge and skills related to their professional roles and responsibilities. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to educating personnel on UCMJ. Accountability pertains to being answerable for one's actions, individual training focuses on specific skill development, and military appearance/physical condition relates to grooming standards and fitness rather than UCMJ education.

4. Who is at higher risk for drug-nutrient interactions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Older men and women are at higher risk for drug-nutrient interactions due to factors such as polypharmacy and physiological changes. Polypharmacy, common in older adults, increases the likelihood of interactions between drugs and nutrients. Physiological changes that occur with aging can affect how drugs and nutrients are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the body. Infants, people with diabetes, and women of childbearing age are not typically considered high-risk groups for drug-nutrient interactions compared to older adults.

5. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by the buildup of ammonia in the body. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, normally gets converted to urea in the liver for excretion. However, in liver dysfunction, such as cirrhosis, the liver cannot effectively convert ammonia to urea, leading to its accumulation in the body and subsequently causing hepatic encephalopathy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.

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