Nursing Elites

1. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

• A. Sitting
• B. Prone
• C. Sidelying
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

2. After attempting suicide by taking 200 acetaminophen (Tylenol) tablets, a client is transferred from the emergency department to the locked psychiatric unit. The client is now awake and alert but refuses to speak with the nurse. In this situation, what is the nurse’s first priority?

• A. Establish a rapport to foster trust
• B. Place the client in full restraints
• C. Try to communicate with the client in writing
• D. Ensure safety by initiating suicide precautions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse's first priority in this situation is to ensure the client's safety by initiating suicide precautions. This involves removing any potential means of self-harm and closely monitoring the client to prevent further attempts. While establishing rapport and communication are important, safety is paramount at this critical juncture. Placing the client in full restraints should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for immediate safety concerns.

3. The nurse in the pediatric clinic performs a physical assessment of a 13-year-old boy. Which of the following findings by the nurse requires an immediate intervention?

• A. The adolescent complains of his scrotum aching after exercise. The nurse palpates a worm-like mass above the testes
• B. The nurse noted unilateral breast enlargement
• C. The child’s scrotum appears swollen, and a soft mass is palpated. The nurse is unable to insert a finger above the mass
• D. The child’s scrotum appears enlarged and red. The nurse palpated a thickened and swollen spermatic cord.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A swollen and thickened spermatic cord could indicate testicular torsion, which is a surgical emergency.

4. Infection or inflammation of small sacs that protrude from the lumen of the colon is known as:

• A. Diverticulosis
• B. Diverticulitis
• C. Cholelithiasis
• D. Cholecystitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diverticulitis refers to the infection or inflammation of diverticula in the colon. Choice A, Diverticulosis, is the condition of having diverticula without inflammation. Choices C and D, Cholelithiasis and Cholecystitis, are related to the gallbladder and not the colon, making them incorrect in this context.

5. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant and interferes with the action of:

• A. Platelets
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Calcium
• D. Vitamin B12

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting the action of vitamin K, which is crucial for the synthesis of clotting factors in the blood. By interfering with vitamin K, warfarin decreases the production of these clotting factors, thereby prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. This is why individuals on warfarin therapy need to monitor their vitamin K intake. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin does not directly interfere with platelets, calcium, or vitamin B12.

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