ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5
1. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?
- A. Sitting
- B. Prone
- C. Sidelying
- D. Supine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.
2. A 31-year-old client is seeking contraceptive information. Before responding to the client’s questions about contraceptives, the nurse obtains a health history. What factor in the client’s history indicates to the nurse that oral contraceptives are contraindicated?
- A. More than 30 years of age
- B. Had two multiple pregnancies
- C. Smokes 1 pack of cigarettes a day
- D. Has a history of borderline hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Smoking, especially in clients over 30, increases the risk of thromboembolic events, making oral contraceptives contraindicated. Choice A (More than 30 years of age) is not a direct contraindication for oral contraceptives. Choice B (Had two multiple pregnancies) is not a factor that contraindicates the use of oral contraceptives. Choice D (Has a history of borderline hypertension) is not a specific contraindication for oral contraceptives unless it is severe or uncontrolled hypertension.
3. Determining nursing care priorities is a part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?
- A. Evaluation
- B. Planning
- C. Implementation
- D. Assessment
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Planning in nursing involves setting priorities based on the identified patient needs, establishing goals, and developing a plan of care. Evaluation involves assessing the effectiveness of the care provided, implementation is the phase where the care plan is carried out, and assessment is the initial step of collecting data to identify the patient's needs. Therefore, in the context of determining nursing care priorities, the correct step is Planning (choice B).
4. The Army Medical Department has four major functions. Three are prevention, treatment, and evacuation. What is the fourth?
- A. Preparation
- B. Training
- C. Mobilization
- D. Selection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Mobilization.' In the context of the Army Medical Department, mobilization refers to the process of preparing and organizing medical personnel and resources for deployment during military operations. While preparation, training, and selection are important functions within the military medical field, mobilization specifically relates to the readiness and deployment of medical assets in response to operational requirements, making it the fourth major function of the Army Medical Department.
5. What is a good source of potassium and can be related to increased excretion?
- A. Potassium
- B. Increased excretion
- C. Broccoli
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Broccoli is a good source of potassium and can contribute to increased excretion. While potassium itself is a mineral and increased excretion can be related to dietary intake, the specific relationship mentioned in the text is about broccoli being a good source of potassium and having a potential impact on excretion.
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