in assessing the clients chest which position best show chest expansion as well as its movements
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5

1. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

2. The nurse teaches the mother of an infant how to care for her infant following repair of a cleft lip. It is MOST important for the nurse to include which of the following instructions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeding the infant with a rubber-tipped syringe reduces the risk of injury to the surgical site and prevents aspiration. Choice A is incorrect because feeding in the recumbent position can increase the risk of aspiration. Choice B is incorrect as Betadine is not recommended for wound care near the mouth due to its potential toxicity if ingested. Choice C is incorrect because placing the infant in the prone position after feeding can increase the risk of regurgitation and aspiration.

3. A client has been given instructions about ferrous sulfate. Which statement made by the client would indicate the client needs further education?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ferrous sulfate should be taken on an empty stomach to improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as taking the medication with a full glass of milk would impair iron absorption. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding the administration of ferrous sulfate. Choice B ensures proper timing before breakfast, choice C highlights avoiding coffee due to interference with iron absorption, and choice D correctly suggests taking antacids a few hours after ferrous sulfate to prevent potential interactions.

4. The system used at the division level and forward is comprised of six basic modules. Which module is staffed with two surgeons, two nurse anesthetists, a medical/surgical nurse, two operating room specialists, and two practical nurses?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Forward Surgical Team (FST). The FST is indeed staffed with two surgeons, two nurse anesthetists, a medical/surgical nurse, two operating room specialists, and two practical nurses. This team is specifically trained and equipped to provide surgical intervention in austere environments where immediate medical care is needed. Choices A, B, and C do not match the personnel composition described in the question, making them incorrect. The Treatment squad typically focuses on patient care and recovery, the Area support squad provides logistical and administrative support, and the Medical service squad deals with broader medical services beyond surgical interventions.

5. Which of the following is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties at the various levels of health care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 68WM6. The 68WM6 (Practical Nurse) is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties. Choice A (68A30) does not correspond to a primary enlisted personnel role in nursing. Choice C (Physician assistant) is not an enlisted personnel role but rather a separate healthcare profession. Choice D (6.80E+21) is a numerical value and does not relate to enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties.

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