in assessing the clients chest which position best show chest expansion as well as its movements
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5

1. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

2. What nutrient can be obtained from broccoli and is related to the concept of increased excretion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Broccoli. Broccoli is a good source of potassium. Increased excretion can be related to the dietary intake of nutrients like potassium. Choice A, Potassium, is a nutrient obtained from broccoli but is not directly related to increased excretion. Choice B, Increased excretion, is a process rather than a nutrient obtained from broccoli, making it an incorrect choice.

3. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client’s sacrum for dependent edema is crucial in the care plan for nephritic syndrome as it is common due to protein loss. Dependent edema occurs as a result of decreased oncotic pressure from protein loss in the urine. Monitoring urine for bright-red bleeding (choice A) is more relevant to conditions like glomerulonephritis. Evaluating calorie count or protein intake (choice B) is important for other conditions but not specifically for nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level (choice D) is not typically part of the immediate care plan for nephritic syndrome.

4. A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease should avoid which medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease should avoid nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) because they can worsen peptic ulcers. NSAIDs inhibit the production of prostaglandins, which help protect the stomach lining. Acetaminophen (Choice A) is a safer alternative for pain relief in patients with peptic ulcers. Antacids (Choice B) can actually help in symptom relief by neutralizing stomach acid. Antihistamines (Choice D) are not known to worsen peptic ulcers and are generally safe for use in patients with this condition.

5. Which potential complication should the nurse assess for in the client with infective endocarditis who has embolization of vegetative lesions from the mitral valve?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased urine output.' Embolization of vegetative lesions from the mitral valve can cause renal infarction, leading to a decrease in urine output. This complication is due to the obstruction of blood flow to the kidneys. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because embolization from the mitral valve typically does not directly cause pulmonary embolism, hemoptysis, or deep vein thrombosis.

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