ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5
1. The nurse understands that which characteristics are of anthrax? Select all that apply.
- A. Cutaneous lesions become a black eschar and flu-like symptoms are a sign of pulmonary anthrax
- B. Cutaneous lesions become a black eschar
- C. Gastrointestinal anthrax causes blood anthrax
- D. Flu-like symptoms are a sign of pulmonary anthrax
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct characteristics of anthrax are that cutaneous anthrax causes black eschar lesions, and flu-like symptoms are typical of pulmonary anthrax. Choice B is incorrect because it only includes information about cutaneous anthrax lesions but doesn't cover the flu-like symptoms of pulmonary anthrax. Choice C is incorrect as gastrointestinal anthrax does not cause 'blood anthrax,' it causes symptoms like severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea. Choice D is incorrect as flu-like symptoms are associated with pulmonary anthrax, not with gastrointestinal anthrax.
2. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?
- A. Sitting
- B. Prone
- C. Sidelying
- D. Supine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.
3. The nurse writes a problem of “potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation” for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Instruct the client to delay intercourse until menses
- B. Schedule the client for frequent pelvic sonograms
- C. Explain that the infusion therapy will take 21 days
- D. Discuss that this may cause an ectopic pregnancy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (Choice A) is not directly related to monitoring for ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (Choice C) is not relevant to monitoring for this specific complication. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (Choice D) is important, but it is not the most appropriate intervention for monitoring ovarian hyperstimulation.
4. The nurse is preparing a teaching care plan for the client diagnosed with nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should the nurse include?
- A. Discontinue the use of steroid therapy immediately if symptoms develop.
- B. Take diuretics as needed to treat the dependent edema in ankles.
- C. Increase the intake of dietary sodium every day to decrease fluid retention.
- D. Report any decrease in daily weight during treatment to the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to include in the care plan for a client diagnosed with nephritic syndrome is to instruct the client to report any decrease in daily weight during treatment to the healthcare provider. A decrease in weight could indicate worsening of the nephritic syndrome or dehydration, making it crucial information for the healthcare provider to assess the client's condition. Option A is incorrect because discontinuing steroid therapy should be done under medical guidance rather than immediately if symptoms develop. Option B is incorrect because diuretics should not be taken without healthcare provider's guidance due to the risk of electrolyte imbalances. Option C is incorrect as increasing dietary sodium would exacerbate fluid retention, which is undesirable in nephritic syndrome.
5. The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus about diet. Which diet selection indicates the client understands the teaching?
- A. A submarine sandwich, potato chips, and diet cola
- B. Four (4) slices of a supreme thin-crust pizza and milk
- C. Smoked turkey sandwich, celery sticks, and unsweetened tea
- D. A roast beef sandwich, fried onion rings, and a cola
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a smoked turkey sandwich with celery sticks and unsweetened tea is a healthier option for someone with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Turkey is a lean protein source, celery sticks are low in calories and carbs, and unsweetened tea is a better choice than sugary beverages. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A includes high-carb and high-sugar items like potato chips and diet cola, which are not ideal for diabetes management. Choice B contains a high-carb pizza and milk, which may not be suitable for controlling blood sugar levels. Choice D includes fried onion rings and cola, which are high in unhealthy fats and sugars, making it a poor choice for a diabetic diet.
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