ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored
1. Which of the following is not directly related to the drug toxicity of Ibuprofen?
- A. Nausea
- B. Renal dysfunction
- C. Anemia
- D. Muscle wasting
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ibuprofen is known to cause adverse effects such as nausea, renal dysfunction, and anemia. However, muscle wasting is not a common toxicity associated with Ibuprofen use. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
2. The client has been asked to perform weight-bearing exercises three times a week. The client admits to not doing the recommended exercises. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. I walk 3 miles every day. Would you like to join me?
- B. Tell me more about your experience with these exercises.
- C. My dad never exercised. He fell and broke his hip. Is that your goal?
- D. You should be doing these exercises.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse is to ask the client to elaborate on their experience with the exercises. By doing so, the nurse can gain insight into any barriers the client may be facing and work together to find solutions to improve adherence. Choice A is not appropriate as it doesn't address the client's situation. Choice C is not relevant and may induce fear in the client. Choice D is directive and does not promote open communication or understanding of the client's perspective.
3. When a patient who takes metformin (Glucophage) to manage type 2 diabetes develops an allergic rash from an unknown cause, the healthcare provider prescribes prednisone (Deltasone). The nurse will anticipate that the patient may
- A. require administration of insulin while taking prednisone
- B. develop acute hypoglycemia while taking prednisone
- C. require administration of insulin while taking prednisone
- D. have rashes caused by metformin-prednisone interactions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient taking metformin develops an allergic rash from an unknown cause and is prescribed prednisone, the nurse should anticipate that the patient may require administration of insulin while taking prednisone. Prednisone can increase blood glucose levels by antagonizing the effects of insulin, leading to hyperglycemia. Therefore, the patient may need additional insulin to manage blood sugar levels effectively. The other options are incorrect as prednisone would not directly cause a need for a higher-calorie diet, acute hypoglycemia, or rashes caused by a metformin-prednisone interaction.
4. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?
- A. Monitor for signs of infection
- B. Monitor for anemia
- C. Monitor for dehydration
- D. Monitor for bleeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.
5. A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?
- A. WBC of 3200 cells/mm³
- B. RR of 26 breaths/min
- C. Temp of 38°C
- D. BP of 70/50
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: BP of 70/50. When sildenafil (Viagra) is taken with nitroglycerin, it can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The combination of these medications can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. It is crucial to immediately report hypotension in this scenario as it poses a significant risk to the patient's life. It is recommended to allow at least 24 hours to elapse between the last dose of sildenafil and nitroglycerin to prevent such adverse effects. The other vital signs and lab values may be abnormal but do not have the immediate life-threatening implications that severe hypotension does in this context.
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