Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer heparin 15,000 units subcutaneously every 12 hr. The amount available is heparin injection 20,000 units/mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

• A. 0.8 mL
• B. 0.75 mL
• C. 0.5 mL
• D. 1 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: (Desired dose / Concentration) = Volume to administer. In this case, (15,000 units / 20,000 units/mL) = 0.75 mL, which is rounded up to 0.8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 0.8 mL per dose of heparin. Choice B (0.75 mL) is incorrect as it is the exact calculated volume but needs to be rounded up. Choices C (0.5 mL) and D (1 mL) are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculated volume for the desired dose of heparin.

2. A client has a new prescription for Metronidazole. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching?

• A. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Avoid dairy products while taking this medication.
• D. Take this medication with antacids.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the discharge teaching for a client prescribed Metronidazole is to avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. Drinking alcohol with Metronidazole can result in a disulfiram-like reaction, leading to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and flushing. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to abstain from alcohol consumption during the course of treatment with Metronidazole.

3. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. The client should be monitored for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia is characterized by elevated levels of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous and lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia is crucial when a client is taking spironolactone. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone is not known to cause hyponatremia, hypokalemia, or hypercalcemia as adverse effects.

4. A client has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia due to its mechanism of action. Hyperkalemia can cause muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should educate the client to monitor for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia while taking Spironolactone.

5. A client receives a new prescription for NRTIs for HIV treatment. Which statement should the nurse include during teaching about these medications?

• A. These medications work by inhibiting enzymes to prevent HIV replication.
• B. These medications work by preventing protein synthesis within the HIV cell.
• C. These medications work by weakening the cell wall of the HIV virus.
• D. These medications work by blocking HIV entry into cells.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: NRTIs inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, essential for HIV replication. By preventing this process, viral replication is hindered, ultimately reducing the viral load in the body. Option A correctly explains the mechanism of action of NRTIs in treating HIV infection. Choices B, C, and D describe mechanisms of action that do not align with how NRTIs work in HIV treatment. B is incorrect because NRTIs do not target protein synthesis within the HIV cell. C is incorrect as NRTIs do not affect the cell wall of the HIV virus. D is incorrect because NRTIs do not block HIV entry into cells.

Similar Questions