Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is not considered an extracellular fluid?

• A. Cerebrospinal fluid
• B. The humors of the eye
• C. Lymph
• D. Cerebrospinal fluid and the humors of the eye

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cerebrospinal fluid and the humors of the eye are not considered extracellular fluids. Extracellular fluids are fluids found outside the cells, such as interstitial fluid and lymph. Cerebrospinal fluid is found within the central nervous system, while the humors of the eye (aqueous humor and vitreous humor) are located within the eyeball, making them distinct from extracellular fluids.

2. You are performing an admission assessment on an older adult patient newly admitted for end-stage liver disease. What principle should guide your assessment of the patients skin turgor?

• A. Overhydration is common among healthy older adults.
• B. Dehydration causes the skin to appear spongy
• C. Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging
• D. Skin turgor cannot be assessed in patients over 70.

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

3. You are working on a burns unit, and one of your acutely ill patients is exhibiting signs and symptoms of third spacing. Based on this change in status, you should expect the patient to exhibit signs and symptoms of what imbalance?

• A. Metabolic alkalosis
• B. Hypermagnesemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypovolemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient exhibits signs and symptoms of third-spacing, where fluid moves out of the intravascular space but not into the intracellular space, hypovolemia is expected. This leads to a decreased circulating blood volume. Increased calcium and magnesium levels are not typically associated with third-spacing fluid shift. Burns usually result in acidosis rather than alkalosis, making metabolic alkalosis an incorrect choice. Therefore, hypovolemia is the correct answer in this scenario.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing excessive diarrhea. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 7.28, PaO2 98 mm Hg, PaCO2 45 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. Which provider order should the nurse expect to receive?

• A. Furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg intravenous push
• B. Sodium bicarbonate 100 mEq diluted in 1 L of D5W
• C. Mechanical ventilation
• D. Indwelling urinary catheter

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

5. A client with a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L and cardiovascular changes needs immediate intervention. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?

• A. Prepare to administer sodium polystyrene sulfate (Kayexalate) 15 g by mouth.
• B. Provide a heart-healthy, low-potassium diet.
• C. Prepare to administer dextrose 20% and 10 units of regular insulin IV push.
• D. Prepare the client for hemodialysis treatment.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a serum potassium level of 7.5 mEq/L and cardiovascular changes, the priority intervention is to lower the potassium level quickly to prevent life-threatening complications like arrhythmias. The correct answer is to prepare to administer dextrose 20% and 10 units of regular insulin IV push. This combination helps shift potassium from the extracellular to the intracellular space, reducing serum potassium levels rapidly. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfate (Kayexalate) by mouth may take several hours to work, making it a less effective immediate intervention. Providing a heart-healthy, low-potassium diet is important for long-term management but is not the most urgent action in this situation. While hemodialysis is a definitive treatment for hyperkalemia, it is not the first-line intervention for acute management of high potassium levels with cardiovascular manifestations.

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