Nursing Elites

1. You are the surgical nurse caring for a 65-year-old female patient who is postoperative day 1 following a thyroidectomy. During your shift assessment, the patient complains of tingling in her lips and fingers. She tells you that she has an intermittent spasm in her wrist and hand and she exhibits increased muscle tone. What electrolyte imbalance should you first suspect?

• A. Hypophosphatemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hypermagnesemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

2. A female patient is discharged from the hospital after having an episode of heart failure. She's prescribed daily oral doses of digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). Two days later, she tells her community health nurse that she feels weak and her heart 'flutters' frequently. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Tell the patient to rest more frequently.
• B. Advise the patient to discontinue digoxin and contact the physician.
• C. Contact the physician, report the symptoms, and request a blood sample to determine the patient's potassium level.
• D. Instruct the patient to avoid caffeine-containing foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the physician, report the patient's symptoms, and request a blood sample to determine the patient's potassium level. Furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia, causing weakness and palpitations. Therefore, checking the potassium level is crucial in this situation. Simply telling the patient to rest more frequently won't address the underlying issue of potassium depletion. While digoxin can cause adverse effects, in this case, the symptoms are more likely related to furosemide-induced potassium loss. Instructing the patient to avoid caffeine-containing foods may be beneficial in general, but it wouldn't directly address the potassium depletion that needs urgent attention.

3. The nurse assessing skin turgor in an elderly patient should remember that:

• A. Overhydration causes the skin to tent.
• B. Dehydration causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy.
• C. Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging.
• D. Normal skin turgor is moist and boggy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging. Dehydration, not overhydration, causes inelastic skin with tenting. Overhydration, not dehydration, causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy. Normal skin turgor is dry and firm. Choice A is incorrect because overhydration does not cause the skin to tent; it is dehydration that leads to tenting. Choice B is incorrect because dehydration, not overhydration, causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy. Choice D is incorrect because normal skin turgor is dry and firm, not moist and boggy.

4. A patient is taking spironolactone (Aldactone) to control her hypertension. Her serum potassium level is 6 mEq/L. For this patient, the nurse's priority would be to assess her:

• A. Neuromuscular function
• B. Bowel sounds
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Electrocardiogram (ECG) results

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with a serum potassium level of 6 mEq/L due to spironolactone use, the nurse's priority is to assess the Electrocardiogram (ECG) results. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation, which can be detected on an ECG. While changes in neuromuscular function, bowel sounds, and respiratory rate can occur with hyperkalemia, the most critical assessment related to the patient's condition would be monitoring the ECG for signs of cardiac complications.

5. While assessing a patient's peripheral IV site, you note edema around the insertion site. How should you document this complication related to IV therapy?

• A. Air emboli
• B. Phlebitis
• C. Infiltration
• D. Fluid overload

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infiltration is the administration of a nonvesicant solution or medication into the surrounding tissue, typically due to the dislodgement or perforation of the vein wall by the IV cannula. It is characterized by edema around the insertion site, leakage of IV fluid, discomfort, coolness, and a decrease in flow rate. In this scenario, the presence of edema indicates infiltration, not air emboli, phlebitis, or fluid overload. Air emboli refer to air bubbles in the bloodstream, phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and fluid overload is an excessive volume of fluid in the circulatory system.

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