ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored
1. Which of the following is not a side effect of the vasodilator Nifedipine?
- A. Nausea
- B. Flushed appearance
- C. Vertigo
- D. Sexual dysfunction
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sexual dysfunction is not a common side effect of vasodilators such as Nifedipine. Nausea, flushed appearance, and vertigo are more commonly reported side effects associated with this medication. It's essential for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential side effects to monitor and manage them effectively in patients prescribed with Nifedipine.
2. A client has a new prescription for Efavirenz, an NNRTI. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent drowsiness.
- B. Take this medication with a glass of milk.
- C. Take this medication with a glass of juice.
- D. Take this medication at the same time every day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction is to take Efavirenz at bedtime to prevent drowsiness and manage central nervous system side effects like dizziness and vivid dreams. While it is important to take the medication at the same time daily for consistent blood levels, the emphasis should be on bedtime to minimize the impact of these side effects. Choices B and C suggesting taking the medication with milk or juice are incorrect and not relevant to optimizing Efavirenz therapy.
3. A client in the post-anesthesia recovery unit received a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent and has muscle weakness. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Neostigmine
- B. Naloxone
- C. Dantrolene
- D. Vecuronium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor commonly used to reverse the effects of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers, such as the one the client received. It works by inhibiting the breakdown of acetylcholine, thereby enhancing neuromuscular transmission and reversing muscle weakness caused by the neuromuscular blocking agent.
4. A client has a new prescription for Metformin to treat type 2 diabetes. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored?
- A. Hemoglobin A1C
- B. Liver function tests
- C. Electrolyte levels
- D. Kidney function
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Metformin is excreted by the kidneys, and impaired kidney function can lead to an increased risk of lactic acidosis, a serious side effect. Therefore, it is important to monitor kidney function regularly while a client is on Metformin. Hemoglobin A1C is used to monitor long-term glucose control, but kidney function is the priority for monitoring Metformin therapy.
5. Which of the following diuretics inhibits sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while sparing K+ and hydrogen ions?
- A. Spironolactone
- B. Furosemide
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide
- D. Bumetanide
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spironolactone is the correct answer as it is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while promoting the retention of potassium and hydrogen ions. This mechanism of action helps in reducing fluid retention without causing excessive loss of potassium, which is a common side effect of other diuretics. Furosemide (choice B), Hydrochlorothiazide (choice C), and Bumetanide (choice D) are not correct as they are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide and Bumetanide are loop diuretics that inhibit sodium, potassium, and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to potassium loss.
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