ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client has a prescription for a Nicotine transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply the patch at the same time each day.
- B. Remove the patch at bedtime.
- C. Apply the patch to the same location daily.
- D. Place the patch over an area of the body with hair.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nicotine transdermal patch is to apply the patch at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent blood levels of nicotine throughout the treatment period, which can aid in reducing cravings for smoking. Consistency in the application time is essential for the effectiveness of the patch. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Removing the patch at bedtime may disrupt the continuous delivery of nicotine, applying the patch to the same location daily can cause skin irritation, and placing the patch over an area with hair may affect its adhesion and absorption.
2. A client with prostate cancer is receiving leuprolide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Increased testosterone levels
- B. Increased libido
- C. Gynecomastia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for gynecomastia, as it is an adverse effect of leuprolide due to decreased testosterone levels. Leuprolide works by decreasing testosterone production, which can lead to gynecomastia, the development of male breast tissue. Monitoring for this side effect is essential for early detection and intervention.
3. A client is starting a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- B. Avoid grapefruit juice.
- C. Monitor blood pressure regularly.
- D. Monitor heart rate daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients prescribed verapamil should be advised to avoid grapefruit juice as it can potentiate the drug's effects, leading to adverse reactions. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of verapamil, resulting in higher blood levels of the medication and an increased risk of side effects. Instructions such as taking the medication with a full glass of water (Choice A) are not specific to verapamil and are generally recommended. While monitoring blood pressure regularly (Choice C) is important for clients on antihypertensive medications, it is not a direct concern related to verapamil. Monitoring heart rate daily (Choice D) is not a primary consideration when starting verapamil, as it is more commonly used for its effects on blood pressure and arrhythmias rather than heart rate.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of 300 mL of pooled platelets for a client with severe Thrombocytopenia. How should the healthcare professional plan to administer the transfusion over which of the following time frames?
- A. Within 30 minutes/unit
- B. Within 60 minutes/unit
- C. Within 2 hours/unit
- D. Within 4 hours/unit
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Platelets are fragile components that must be administered promptly to minimize the risk of clumping. The correct administration time for platelets is within 15 to 30 minutes per unit to maintain their therapeutic effectiveness and reduce adverse effects. Administering platelets over longer time frames can lead to decreased efficacy and potential harm to the patient. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer the 300 mL of pooled platelets within 30 minutes per unit.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin to a client. The professional should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Nephrotoxicity
- B. Hepatotoxicity
- C. Red Man Syndrome
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse effect of vancomycin characterized by flushing and rash. It is not related to nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, or diarrhea. Monitoring for this reaction allows for prompt intervention to prevent severe complications.
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