which of the following is found in clients with parkinsons disease
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ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. Which of the following is found in clients with Parkinson’s disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Too much dopamine in the brain. Parkinson's disease is characterized by a deficiency of dopamine in the brain, not an excess. This deficiency leads to the motor symptoms associated with the disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Mobility and functioning are affected in Parkinson's disease due to the lack of dopamine, not an excess. The liver and kidneys are not directly related to Parkinson's disease. Skeletal muscle flaccidity is not typically a primary symptom of Parkinson's disease, which is more characterized by rigidity and tremors.

2. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, such as Evista, works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This medication is beneficial in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by slowing down the breakdown of bone tissue, thereby reducing the risk of fractures. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone, increase calcium absorption in the intestines, or increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

3. What is a cause of the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Underexcretion of uric acid. Gouty arthritis is primarily caused by the underexcretion of uric acid, leading to its accumulation in joints and subsequent crystallization. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of gout. Destruction of proteoglycans, overexcretion of uric acid, and increased absorption of uric acid are not primary causes of gouty arthritis.

4. A patient has been diagnosed with cytomegalovirus (CMV). Which of the following drugs would be ineffective in the treatment of this disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Ribavirin (Rebetol). Ribavirin is not effective against CMV. Choice B, Ganciclovir (Cytovene) IV, is a common treatment for CMV as it inhibits viral DNA synthesis. Choice C, Foscarnet (Foscavir) IV, is also used for CMV infections by blocking viral DNA polymerase. Choice D, Valganciclovir hydrochloride (Valcyte), is a prodrug of Ganciclovir and is effective against CMV. Therefore, Ribavirin is the drug that would be ineffective in treating CMV.

5. A patient has acute respiratory failure (ARF). Which of the following would the nurse expect to find?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute respiratory failure, hypoxemia (low blood oxygen) and hypercapnia (high blood carbon dioxide) are commonly observed. Choice A is incorrect because alkalosis (high pH) and hyperventilation are not typically seen in acute respiratory failure. Choice C is incorrect as it mentions alkalosis and high potassium, which are not characteristic of acute respiratory failure. Choice D is also incorrect because elevated sodium and acidosis are not typically associated with acute respiratory failure.

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