Nursing Elites

1. A 21-year-old male is being started on zidovudine (AZT) for the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates that he has understood the patient teaching?

• A. “AZT inactivates the virus and prevents recurrence of the disease.”
• B. “AZT therapy may result in the development of AZT-resistant strains.”
• C. “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it.”
• D. “AZT prevents the occurrence of opportunistic infections.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When the patient states, “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it,” it shows an understanding that zidovudine (AZT) does not provide a cure for HIV/AIDS but helps in slowing down the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect because AZT does not inactivate the virus or prevent recurrence. Choice B is incorrect as AZT resistance can develop with therapy. Choice D is incorrect because while AZT can help prevent opportunistic infections by boosting the immune system, its primary action is not the prevention of opportunistic infections.

2. When treating a patient for a fungal infection with IV amphotericin B, what should the nurse consistently monitor the patient's levels of to prevent drug discomfort?

• A. sodium
• B. hemoglobin
• C. calcium
• D. leukocytes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is being treated with IV amphotericin B for a fungal infection, it is crucial to monitor the patient's calcium levels consistently. IV amphotericin B can cause hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and most notably, hypocalcemia. Monitoring calcium levels helps prevent drug-related discomfort and adverse effects. Sodium (Choice A), hemoglobin (Choice B), and leukocytes (Choice D) are not the primary parameters to monitor specifically for drug discomfort related to amphotericin B. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.

3. Why is it important for a patient to take a new oral contraceptive at the same time each day?

• A. Taking the medication at the same time each day helps maintain stable hormone levels, which is critical for preventing pregnancy.
• B. Taking the medication at the same time each day reduces the risk of breakthrough bleeding.
• C. Taking the medication at the same time each day ensures consistent absorption and effectiveness.
• D. Taking the medication at the same time each day is important, but missing a dose occasionally is not a concern.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking oral contraceptives at the same time each day is crucial for maintaining stable hormone levels, which is essential for the contraceptive's effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for taking the medication consistently is hormone level stability, not specifically to reduce breakthrough bleeding. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on absorption and effectiveness, which are important but do not address the main reason for consistent timing. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses can impact contraceptive efficacy, making consistent timing essential for optimal protection.

4. What is a cause of the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?

• A. Destruction of proteoglycans
• B. Underexcretion of uric acid
• C. Overexcretion of uric acid
• D. Increased absorption of uric acid

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Underexcretion of uric acid. Gouty arthritis is primarily caused by the underexcretion of uric acid, leading to its accumulation in joints and subsequent crystallization. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of gout. Destruction of proteoglycans, overexcretion of uric acid, and increased absorption of uric acid are not primary causes of gouty arthritis.

5. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• B. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
• D. Increased risk of bone fractures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy for hypogonadism is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as myocardial infarction and stroke. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during testosterone therapy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of liver dysfunction, prostate cancer, or bone fractures.

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