Nursing Elites

1. A 21-year-old male is being started on zidovudine (AZT) for the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates that he has understood the patient teaching?

• A. “AZT inactivates the virus and prevents recurrence of the disease.”
• B. “AZT therapy may result in the development of AZT-resistant strains.”
• C. “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it.”
• D. “AZT prevents the occurrence of opportunistic infections.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When the patient states, “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it,” it shows an understanding that zidovudine (AZT) does not provide a cure for HIV/AIDS but helps in slowing down the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect because AZT does not inactivate the virus or prevent recurrence. Choice B is incorrect as AZT resistance can develop with therapy. Choice D is incorrect because while AZT can help prevent opportunistic infections by boosting the immune system, its primary action is not the prevention of opportunistic infections.

2. Which of the following birthmarks usually fade or regress as the child gets older?

• A. Hemangiomas
• B. Congenital dermal melanocytosis (i.e., Mongolian spots)
• C. Macular stains
• D. Hemangiomas, congenital dermal melanocytosis (i.e., Mongolian spots), and macular stains

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Hemangiomas, congenital dermal melanocytosis (i.e., Mongolian spots), and macular stains are birthmarks that usually fade or regress as the child gets older. Hemangiomas are vascular birthmarks that often shrink and fade over time. Congenital dermal melanocytosis (Mongolian spots) are blue-gray birthmarks commonly found on the lower back and buttocks of infants, which typically fade by adolescence. Macular stains, also known as salmon patches, are pink or red birthmarks that usually fade within the first few years of life. Choice D is correct because all the mentioned birthmarks tend to diminish as the child grows, unlike choices A, B, and C which do not fade or regress with age.

3. Which of the following wounds is most likely to heal by secondary intention?

• A. A finger laceration received while cutting onions
• B. A stage IV pressure ulcer that developed in a nursing home
• C. A needlestick injury received while administering parenteral medication
• D. An incision from an open appendectomy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A stage IV pressure ulcer is a deep wound involving tissue loss that typically heals by secondary intention. This process involves the wound healing from the bottom up with granulation tissue and often results in significant scarring. Choice A, a finger laceration, would generally heal by primary intention due to its clean edges and minimal tissue loss. Choice C, a needlestick injury, is likely to be sutured and heal by primary intention since it is a small, clean wound. Choice D, an incision from an open appendectomy, is usually closed with sutures and heals by primary intention as well.

4. When a healthcare professional is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the healthcare professional calls these erythrocytes:

• A. Hyperchromic
• B. Hypochromic
• C. Macrocytic
• D. Microcytic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Erythrocytes with an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin are called hypochromic. Hyperchromic refers to erythrocytes with an abnormally high concentration of hemoglobin. Macrocytic indicates larger than normal red blood cells, while microcytic refers to smaller than normal red blood cells. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct term is hypochromic.

5. After a generalized seizure, a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy feels tired and falls asleep. This is:

• A. an ominous sign.
• B. normal and termed the postictal period.
• C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
• D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. The postictal period is the phase following a seizure, characterized by symptoms like fatigue, confusion, and sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure process and does not necessarily indicate a serious underlying issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is expected and not an ominous sign. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided to suggest an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the presence of focal neurologic deficits would indeed be concerning, but the postictal state itself is a common and expected occurrence post-seizure.

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