ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. A 21-year-old male is being started on zidovudine (AZT) for the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates that he has understood the patient teaching?
- A. “AZT inactivates the virus and prevents recurrence of the disease.”
- B. “AZT therapy may result in the development of AZT-resistant strains.”
- C. “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it.”
- D. “AZT prevents the occurrence of opportunistic infections.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When the patient states, “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it,” it shows an understanding that zidovudine (AZT) does not provide a cure for HIV/AIDS but helps in slowing down the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect because AZT does not inactivate the virus or prevent recurrence. Choice B is incorrect as AZT resistance can develop with therapy. Choice D is incorrect because while AZT can help prevent opportunistic infections by boosting the immune system, its primary action is not the prevention of opportunistic infections.
2. A patient is administered a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. What is the main rationale for administering these medications together?
- A. They improve treatment adherence.
- B. They reduce the duration of illness.
- C. They exhibit synergistic antiviral effects.
- D. They prevent opportunistic infections.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The main rationale for administering a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor is that they exhibit synergistic antiviral effects when used together. This combination enhances their antiviral activity against HIV by targeting different steps in the viral replication cycle. Choice A is incorrect because the rationale for combining these medications is based on their antiviral effects, not treatment adherence. Choice B is incorrect because the primary purpose of combination therapy is not to reduce the duration of illness but to improve treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of this combination is not on preventing opportunistic infections but on directly targeting the HIV virus.
3. Macular degeneration occurs as a result of:
- A. loss of lens accommodation
- B. detachment of the retina
- C. increased intraocular pressure
- D. impaired blood supply leading to cellular waste accumulation and ischemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Macular degeneration is a condition that affects the macula, a part of the retina responsible for central vision. It is primarily caused by impaired blood supply to the macula, leading to cellular waste accumulation and ischemia. This results in the death of photoreceptor cells and ultimately vision loss. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because macular degeneration is not related to the loss of lens accommodation, detachment of the retina, or increased intraocular pressure. The correct answer directly addresses the underlying pathophysiology of macular degeneration.
4. A male patient is being treated with testosterone gel for hypogonadism. What important instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Apply the gel to the face and neck for maximum absorption.
- B. Apply the gel to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing.
- C. Apply the gel to the scalp and back.
- D. Apply the gel to the genitals for improved results.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for applying testosterone gel is to apply it to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing. This is important to prevent the transfer of the medication to others. Applying it to the face and neck (Choice A) is incorrect as these areas are not recommended. Similarly, applying it to the scalp and back (Choice C) or the genitals (Choice D) is also incorrect and can lead to inappropriate absorption or undesirable effects.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with lung cancer who is experiencing dyspnea. Which intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Administer a cough suppressant to reduce discomfort.
- B. Encourage the client to lie flat to ease breathing.
- C. Provide supplemental oxygen therapy.
- D. Encourage deep breathing and coughing exercises.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with lung cancer experiencing dyspnea is to provide supplemental oxygen therapy. This intervention helps improve oxygenation and alleviate breathing difficulties. Administering a cough suppressant (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of dyspnea and can potentially depress the respiratory drive. Encouraging the client to lie flat (Choice B) can worsen dyspnea by reducing lung expansion. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises (Choice D) may be beneficial in some situations, but when a client is experiencing dyspnea due to lung cancer, supplemental oxygen therapy is the priority to improve oxygen levels and alleviate breathing difficulty.
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