ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. A 21-year-old male is being started on zidovudine (AZT) for the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates that he has understood the patient teaching?
- A. “AZT inactivates the virus and prevents recurrence of the disease.”
- B. “AZT therapy may result in the development of AZT-resistant strains.”
- C. “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it.”
- D. “AZT prevents the occurrence of opportunistic infections.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When the patient states, “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it,” it shows an understanding that zidovudine (AZT) does not provide a cure for HIV/AIDS but helps in slowing down the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect because AZT does not inactivate the virus or prevent recurrence. Choice B is incorrect as AZT resistance can develop with therapy. Choice D is incorrect because while AZT can help prevent opportunistic infections by boosting the immune system, its primary action is not the prevention of opportunistic infections.
2. In a patient with renal failure secondary to an overdose of a nephrotoxic drug, which assessment findings would the nurse recognize as being most suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis?
- A. Frequent infections and low neutrophil levels
- B. Fatigue and increased heart rate
- C. Agitation and changes in cognition
- D. Increased blood pressure and peripheral edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Impaired erythropoiesis refers to a decreased production of red blood cells. This can lead to anemia, resulting in symptoms like fatigue and increased heart rate (Choice B). However, the question specifically asks about assessment findings suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis. In this context, frequent infections and low neutrophil levels (Choice A) are more directly related to impaired erythropoiesis due to the impact of anemia on the immune system. Frequent infections are common in anemia due to a compromised immune response, and low neutrophil levels can be seen in conditions of impaired erythropoiesis. Agitation and changes in cognition (Choice C) are more indicative of neurological issues, while increased blood pressure and peripheral edema (Choice D) are commonly associated with renal failure but not specifically related to impaired erythropoiesis.
3. A 22-year-old was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which decreased lab finding would be expected to accompany this virus?
- A. CD4 helper T cells
- B. CD8 helper T cells
- C. CDC cells
- D. CDC10 cells
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a person diagnosed with AIDS, a decrease in CD4 helper T cells is expected. These cells are critical for the immune system's proper functioning, and their reduction weakens the body's ability to fight infections. CD8 helper T cells (Choice B) are not typically decreased in AIDS. CDC cells (Choice C) and CDC10 cells (Choice D) are not relevant terms in this context, making them incorrect choices.
4. Why is it important for a patient to take a new oral contraceptive at the same time each day?
- A. Taking the medication at the same time each day helps maintain stable hormone levels, which is critical for preventing pregnancy.
- B. Taking the medication at the same time each day reduces the risk of breakthrough bleeding.
- C. Taking the medication at the same time each day ensures consistent absorption and effectiveness.
- D. Taking the medication at the same time each day is important, but missing a dose occasionally is not a concern.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking oral contraceptives at the same time each day is crucial for maintaining stable hormone levels, which is essential for the contraceptive's effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for taking the medication consistently is hormone level stability, not specifically to reduce breakthrough bleeding. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on absorption and effectiveness, which are important but do not address the main reason for consistent timing. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses can impact contraceptive efficacy, making consistent timing essential for optimal protection.
5. A 30-year-old woman presents with joint pain, a malar rash, and photosensitivity. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Rheumatoid arthritis
- B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
- C. Psoriatic arthritis
- D. Dermatomyositis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Systemic lupus erythematosus. Joint pain, a malar rash, and photosensitivity are classic symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus. Choice A, Rheumatoid arthritis, is incorrect as it typically presents with symmetric joint involvement and morning stiffness. Psoriatic arthritis (Choice C) is characterized by joint pain associated with psoriasis, which is not described in the case. Dermatomyositis (Choice D) presents with muscle weakness, skin rash, and elevated muscle enzymes, different from the symptoms presented in the case.
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