ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. A 21-year-old male is being started on zidovudine (AZT) for the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates that he has understood the patient teaching?
- A. “AZT inactivates the virus and prevents recurrence of the disease.”
- B. “AZT therapy may result in the development of AZT-resistant strains.”
- C. “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it.”
- D. “AZT prevents the occurrence of opportunistic infections.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When the patient states, “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it,” it shows an understanding that zidovudine (AZT) does not provide a cure for HIV/AIDS but helps in slowing down the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect because AZT does not inactivate the virus or prevent recurrence. Choice B is incorrect as AZT resistance can develop with therapy. Choice D is incorrect because while AZT can help prevent opportunistic infections by boosting the immune system, its primary action is not the prevention of opportunistic infections.
2. When a child jumps out of the tub, crying and stating her feet are 'burning,' what pathophysiologic principle is responsible for this response?
- A. Pain receptors (nociceptors) have been activated in response to a thermal stimulus.
- B. The child's skin thermal receptors have undergone adaptation.
- C. The child is exhibiting a psychogenic pain response due to anxiety.
- D. The child is experiencing a conditioned pain response based on previous experiences.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The child's reaction is due to the activation of nociceptors, which are pain receptors that respond to thermal stimuli. This response is an immediate protective mechanism to prevent tissue damage caused by extreme temperatures. Option B is incorrect because adaptation does not explain the child's immediate and intense response. Option C is incorrect as there is a clear physical stimulus present, ruling out a psychogenic response. Option D is incorrect as the child's response is not based on previous experiences but rather on the current thermal stimulus.
3. Which of the following is a characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
- A. Simultaneous stroke and heart attack
- B. Simultaneous clotting and bleeding
- C. Simultaneous clotting and insulin release
- D. Simultaneous bleeding and vomiting
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is characterized by simultaneous clotting and bleeding throughout the body. This imbalance in the body's clotting system leads to the formation of blood clots in small blood vessels, which can consume clotting factors and platelets, ultimately leading to excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the characteristic feature of DIC, which involves both clotting and bleeding.
4. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). What instructions should the nurse provide to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption.
- B. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
- C. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
- D. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water and patients should remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Taking the medication with milk (choice B) is not recommended as it may interfere with the absorption of alendronate. Taking the medication at bedtime (choice C) is not necessary for optimal absorption. Taking the medication with food (choice D) is also not recommended as food can reduce the absorption of alendronate.
5. A female patient is taking combined hormonal contraceptives to prevent pregnancy. She visits the gynecology clinic and is noted to have a blood pressure of 176/102 mm Hg. The patient is started on enalapril mesylate 10 mg. In collaboration with the primary care provider, what other patient teaching should be provided based on her current medication regimen?
- A. Instruct on a low-salt diet.
- B. Instruct to discontinue the contraceptives.
- C. Instruct on the use of relaxation techniques to decrease stress.
- D. Instruct on the rationale for increasing the contraceptive dose.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Women on hormonal contraceptives and antihypertensives like enalapril should be counseled to adopt a low-salt diet if severe hypertension occurs. This dietary modification can help in managing blood pressure levels. Instructing to discontinue the contraceptives is crucial in cases of severe hypertension as it poses an increased risk of cardiovascular events. Instructing on relaxation techniques may have some benefits in reducing stress levels but addressing the root cause, such as discontinuing contraceptives in this scenario, is more critical. There is no rationale for increasing the contraceptive dose when hypertension is present; in fact, it should be stopped to prevent complications.
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