which of the following is considered a class ia sodium channel blocker
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored

1. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Procainamide is a class IA antiarrhythmic drug that acts as a sodium channel blocker by blocking fast sodium channels. Mexiletine is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug, not class IA. Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic, and Quinidine is a class IA antiarrhythmic but not a sodium channel blocker.

2. A healthcare professional in a provider's clinic is caring for a client who reports erectile dysfunction and requests a prescription for sildenafil. Which of the following medications currently prescribed for the client is a contraindication to taking sildenafil?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sildenafil is contraindicated with nitrates like isosorbide due to the risk of severe hypotension. Isosorbide is a nitrate that can potentiate the hypotensive effects of sildenafil, leading to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Therefore, it is essential to avoid concurrent use of isosorbide and sildenafil to prevent adverse effects. Phenytoin, metronidazole, and prednisone do not have significant interactions with sildenafil and are not contraindicated when used together.

3. A client has a new prescription for Methotrexate. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Methotrexate is to avoid drinking alcohol. Methotrexate can cause liver toxicity, and alcohol consumption can increase this risk. It is important to emphasize the avoidance of alcohol while on this medication to prevent adverse effects and ensure treatment effectiveness. The other options are incorrect: Taking Methotrexate with a high-fat meal is not necessary as it can be taken with or without food. Increased hair growth is not an expected effect of Methotrexate; in fact, hair loss is a potential side effect. Stopping the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be dangerous and may lead to worsening of symptoms or relapse, making option D incorrect.

4. A client asks the nurse to explain the difference between stable and unstable angina. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stable angina is typically triggered by physical exertion or emotional stress and is predictable in its frequency, intensity, and duration. In contrast, unstable angina is characterized by angina episodes that are unexpected, more severe, prolonged, and can occur at rest. Understanding these differences can help healthcare providers assess and manage angina episodes effectively, ensuring appropriate interventions are implemented promptly based on the type of angina present.

5. A client has a new prescription for Phenytoin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to brush and floss their teeth regularly. Phenytoin can lead to gingival hyperplasia, making oral hygiene crucial to prevent complications. Encouraging good oral care practices helps reduce the risk of adverse effects on the gums and teeth. Avoiding grapefruit juice is not specifically related to Phenytoin. While some medications require intake with food, Phenytoin is usually taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Increasing calcium-rich foods is not directly associated with Phenytoin therapy.

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