Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

• A. Mexiletine
• B. Amiodarone
• C. Quinidine
• D. Procainamide

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Procainamide is a class IA antiarrhythmic drug that acts as a sodium channel blocker by blocking fast sodium channels. Mexiletine is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug, not class IA. Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic, and Quinidine is a class IA antiarrhythmic but not a sodium channel blocker.

2. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine. What instruction should the nurse include during teaching?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Expect to feel drowsy or lightheaded.
• C. Increase your fluid intake.
• D. Avoid foods high in fat.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction when teaching a client about Clonidine is to expect to feel drowsy or lightheaded. Clonidine can cause these side effects, especially when starting the medication. The nurse should advise the client to avoid activities that require alertness until they understand how the medication affects them. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Clonidine with food, increasing fluid intake, or avoiding foods high in fat are not specific instructions related to managing the side effects of Clonidine.

3. A client has a new prescription for Labetalol. Which of the following instructions should be provided?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor your blood glucose levels.
• C. Expect a rapid heart rate.
• D. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Take the medication with food. Labetalol should be taken with food to increase absorption and reduce the risk of orthostatic hypotension. Taking it with food helps in better absorption and minimizes the potential drop in blood pressure when standing up, which can occur with this medication. Choice B is incorrect as Labetalol is not primarily associated with affecting blood glucose levels. Choice C is incorrect as Labetalol is a beta-blocker that would actually lower heart rate, not increase it. Choice D is incorrect because increasing intake of high-sodium foods could counteract the antihypertensive effects of Labetalol.

4. While caring for a client receiving IV heparin, which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Thrombocytopenia
• D. Leukopenia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelet count, is a known adverse effect associated with heparin therapy. It can lead to an increased risk of bleeding and should be closely monitored during treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension is not typically associated with heparin use; hyperglycemia is not a common adverse effect of heparin; leukopenia is not a primary side effect of heparin therapy.

5. A client with Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis is receiving Streptomycin IM among other antibiotics. For which of the following manifestations should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Extremity paresthesias
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Severe constipation
• D. Complex partial seizures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is extremity paresthesias. Streptomycin, used to treat infections like Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis, can cause paresthesias in the hands and feet as an adverse effect. Monitoring for this symptom is vital to detect and manage it promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because urinary retention, severe constipation, and complex partial seizures are not commonly associated adverse effects of Streptomycin.

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