which of the following is considered a class ia sodium channel blocker

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored

1. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

A. Mexiletine
B. Amiodarone
C. Quinidine
D. Procainamide

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Procainamide is a class IA antiarrhythmic drug that acts as a sodium channel blocker by blocking fast sodium channels. Mexiletine is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug, not class IA. Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic, and Quinidine is a class IA antiarrhythmic but not a sodium channel blocker.

2. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which statement by the client indicates an adverse effect of the medication?

A. I can walk a mile a day.
B. I've had a backache for several days.
C. I am urinating more frequently.
D. I feel nauseated and have no appetite.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nausea and loss of appetite are common early signs of digoxin toxicity, indicating an adverse effect of the medication. These symptoms should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and management.

3. When teaching a client with a prescription for long-term use of oral prednisone for chronic asthma, the nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

A. Weight gain
B. Nervousness
C. Bradycardia
D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is weight gain. Weight gain and fluid retention are common adverse effects of oral prednisone due to sodium and water retention. Patients on long-term prednisone therapy should be advised to monitor their weight closely and report any significant changes to their healthcare provider. Choice B, 'Nervousness,' is not typically associated with oral prednisone use. Choice C, 'Bradycardia,' refers to a slow heart rate, which is not a common adverse effect of prednisone. Choice D, 'Constipation,' is not a typical adverse effect of oral prednisone; instead, gastrointestinal disturbances like increased appetite or even peptic ulcer disease may occur.

4. A client is starting a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following instructions should be included?

A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
B. Avoid grapefruit juice.
C. Monitor blood pressure regularly.
D. Monitor heart rate daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients prescribed verapamil should be advised to avoid grapefruit juice as it can potentiate the drug's effects, leading to adverse reactions. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of verapamil, resulting in higher blood levels of the medication and an increased risk of side effects. Instructions such as taking the medication with a full glass of water (Choice A) are not specific to verapamil and are generally recommended. While monitoring blood pressure regularly (Choice C) is important for clients on antihypertensive medications, it is not a direct concern related to verapamil. Monitoring heart rate daily (Choice D) is not a primary consideration when starting verapamil, as it is more commonly used for its effects on blood pressure and arrhythmias rather than heart rate.

5. What is the primary use of lithium?

A. Lower blood glucose
B. Slow the heart rate
C. Stabilize mood
D. Heal ulcers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stabilize mood. Lithium is primarily used to stabilize mood, especially in conditions like bipolar disorder. It helps in reducing the frequency and severity of manic episodes, making it an essential medication for mood stabilization. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as lithium is not used to lower blood glucose, slow the heart rate, or heal ulcers.