which of the following is another term for billroth i
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Oncology Questions

1. Which of the following terms is another name for Billroth I?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Gastroduodenostomy. Billroth I procedure involves the removal of a part of the stomach (usually the distal portion) and anastomosis of the remaining stomach to the duodenum. This procedure is known as Gastroduodenostomy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they refer to different surgical procedures involving connections with the jejunum, ileum, and creating an opening in the stomach, respectively, not the specific procedure described as Billroth I.

2. A nurse knows that all of the following are managements of breast cancer except:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of breast cancer, particularly after procedures such as a mastectomy, it is important to position the patient in a way that promotes healing and comfort. However, lying down with 1-2 pillows is not a standard practice for postoperative care. Instead, patients are often advised to elevate the affected arm to reduce swelling and promote drainage, and they may benefit from sleeping in a more upright position if they are experiencing discomfort. The focus should be on facilitating recovery rather than simply lying down.

3. When working with clients experiencing alopecia, what is the best method for a nurse to help them manage the psychosocial impact of this issue?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client in pre-planning for alopecia is the best method to help them manage the psychosocial impact of the issue. By helping clients anticipate and prepare for the challenges associated with alopecia, they can cope better with the psychological impact. Reassuring the client that alopecia is temporary (choice B) may provide false hope as some types of alopecia are permanent. Teaching ways to protect the scalp (choice C) is important but not the most effective method for managing the psychosocial impact. Telling the client that there are worse side effects (choice D) is dismissive of the client's feelings and not helpful in addressing the psychosocial impact of alopecia.

4. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.

5. A nurse is caring for a patient with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) who is at risk for anemia. What is the most appropriate intervention to address this risk?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), the bone marrow does not produce enough healthy blood cells, leading to conditions such as anemia. Administering erythropoietin is an effective intervention to manage anemia in MDS patients because it stimulates the production of red blood cells. This can help improve the patient’s hemoglobin levels, reducing symptoms such as fatigue and weakness associated with anemia. Erythropoietin is commonly used in MDS to enhance red blood cell production and reduce the need for frequent blood transfusions.

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