which of the following is another term for billroth i
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Oncology Questions

1. Which of the following terms is another name for Billroth I?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Gastroduodenostomy. Billroth I procedure involves the removal of a part of the stomach (usually the distal portion) and anastomosis of the remaining stomach to the duodenum. This procedure is known as Gastroduodenostomy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they refer to different surgical procedures involving connections with the jejunum, ileum, and creating an opening in the stomach, respectively, not the specific procedure described as Billroth I.

2. A gastrectomy is performed on a client with gastric cancer. In the immediate postoperative period, the nurse notes bloody drainage from the nasogastric tube. The nurse should take which most appropriate action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the immediate postoperative period following a gastrectomy, any bloody drainage from the nasogastric (NG) tube is concerning and requires prompt evaluation. This could indicate potential complications such as bleeding from the surgical site, erosion, or other postoperative issues. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately is crucial to ensure that the patient receives timely assessment and intervention. The presence of blood may necessitate further diagnostic procedures, interventions, or changes in management to prevent serious complications.

3. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

4. A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) who is receiving the drug imatinib (Gleevec). What should the nurse monitor in this patient to assess for side effects of this therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac function. Imatinib can cause fluid retention and heart failure, so cardiac function should be closely monitored. Renal function (choice B) is not typically affected by imatinib. Liver function (choice C) is not the primary concern with this medication. Pulmonary function (choice D) is not directly impacted by imatinib therapy.

5. When working with clients experiencing alopecia, what is the best method for a nurse to help them manage the psychosocial impact of this issue?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client in pre-planning for alopecia is the best method to help them manage the psychosocial impact of the issue. By helping clients anticipate and prepare for the challenges associated with alopecia, they can cope better with the psychological impact. Reassuring the client that alopecia is temporary (choice B) may provide false hope as some types of alopecia are permanent. Teaching ways to protect the scalp (choice C) is important but not the most effective method for managing the psychosocial impact. Telling the client that there are worse side effects (choice D) is dismissive of the client's feelings and not helpful in addressing the psychosocial impact of alopecia.

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