Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following terms is another name for Billroth I?

• A. Gastroduodenostomy
• B. Gastrojejunostomy
• C. Gastroileostomy
• D. Gastrostomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Gastroduodenostomy. Billroth I procedure involves the removal of a part of the stomach (usually the distal portion) and anastomosis of the remaining stomach to the duodenum. This procedure is known as Gastroduodenostomy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they refer to different surgical procedures involving connections with the jejunum, ileum, and creating an opening in the stomach, respectively, not the specific procedure described as Billroth I.

2. A nurse is providing education to a patient with polycythemia vera about self-care strategies. What advice should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid hot showers
• B. Drink plenty of fluids
• C. Avoid tight and restrictive clothing
• D. Avoid prolonged sitting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct advice for a patient with polycythemia vera is to drink plenty of fluids. This helps in reducing the risk of thrombosis by keeping the blood less viscous. Avoiding hot showers (Choice A) is not directly related to managing polycythemia vera. While avoiding tight and restrictive clothing (Choice C) can help improve circulation, it is not the most crucial advice for these patients. Avoiding prolonged sitting (Choice D) is important to prevent blood clots but is not as critical as staying well-hydrated.

3. A patient has been found to have an indolent neoplasm. The nurse should recognize what implication of this condition?

• A. The patient faces a significant risk of malignancy.
• B. The patient has a myeloid form of leukemia.
• C. The patient has a lymphocytic form of leukemia.
• D. The patient has a major risk factor for hemophilia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The patient faces a significant risk of malignancy.' Indolent neoplasms are characterized by their slow growth and relatively low malignancy potential; however, they do have the capability to progress to malignancy over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they make assumptions about specific types of leukemia and hemophilia, which are not necessarily related to the presence of an indolent neoplasm.

4. Diagnostic testing has resulted in a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in an adult patient who is otherwise healthy. The patient and the care team have collaborated and the patient will soon begin induction therapy. The nurse should prepare the patient for which of the following?

• A. Daily treatment with targeted therapy medications
• B. Radiation therapy on a daily basis
• C. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
• D. An aggressive course of chemotherapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Attempts are made to achieve remission of AML by the aggressive administration of chemotherapy.

5. A patient with Hodgkin lymphoma is receiving chemotherapy. Which side effect is the nurse most concerned about?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Alopecia
• C. Fatigue
• D. Peripheral neuropathy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Peripheral neuropathy. This can be a serious and dose-limiting side effect of chemotherapy for Hodgkin lymphoma. Peripheral neuropathy can cause tingling, numbness, and pain in the hands and feet due to nerve damage. While nausea and vomiting, alopecia, and fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy, they are not typically as concerning or dose-limiting as peripheral neuropathy in the context of Hodgkin lymphoma treatment.

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