Nursing Elites

1. A 62-year-old woman diagnosed with breast cancer is scheduled for a partial mastectomy. The oncology nurse explained that the surgeon will want to take tissue samples to ensure the disease has not spread to adjacent axillary lymph nodes. The patient has asked if she will have her lymph nodes dissected, like her mother did several years ago. What alternative to lymph node dissection will this patient most likely undergo?

• A. Lymphadenectomy
• B. Needle biopsy
• C. Open biopsy
• D. Sentinel node biopsy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sentinel lymph node biopsy is a minimally invasive alternative to more extensive lymph node dissection. This procedure involves identifying and removing the first lymph node(s) to which a tumor drains, known as the sentinel node(s), to determine if cancer has spread beyond the primary site. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lymphadenectomy refers to the surgical removal of lymph nodes, needle biopsy involves sampling tissue with a needle for analysis, and open biopsy refers to the surgical removal of a sample of tissue for examination, none of which specifically serve as an alternative to lymph node dissection in this context.

2. A client who has been receiving radiation therapy for bladder cancer tells the nurse that it feels as if she is voiding through the vagina. The nurse interprets that the client may be experiencing which condition?

• A. Rupture of the bladder
• B. The development of a vesicovaginal fistula
• C. Extreme stress caused by the diagnosis of cancer
• D. Altered perineal sensation as a side effect of radiation therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A vesicovaginal fistula is an abnormal connection between the bladder and the vagina, leading to the passage of urine through the vagina. This condition can occur due to various reasons, including radiation therapy. Choice A, rupture of the bladder, is incorrect because a rupture would present with more severe symptoms and is not consistent with the client's description. Choice C, extreme stress, is incorrect as it does not explain the physical symptom of voiding through the vagina. Choice D, altered perineal sensation, is incorrect as it does not involve a direct connection between the bladder and the vagina.

3. A nurse practitioner is assessing a patient who has a fever, malaise, and a white blood cell count that is elevated. Which of the following principles should guide the nurses management of the patients care?

• A. There is a need for the patient to be assessed for lymphoma.
• B. Infection is the most likely cause of the patients change in health status.
• C. The patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of leukemia.
• D. The patient should undergo diagnostic testing for multiple myeloma.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated white blood cell (WBC) count, also known as leukocytosis, is most commonly a response to infection. When the body detects an infection, the immune system responds by increasing the production of white blood cells to fight off the invading pathogens. The accompanying symptoms of fever and malaise are typical signs of infection, supporting the likelihood that this patient’s health status is related to an infectious process rather than a more serious hematologic condition like lymphoma or leukemia.

4. A nurse enters the room of a patient with bladder cancer. The patient asks the nurse about the actions of chemotherapeutic drugs. Which of the following statements by the nurse is correct?

• A. Chemotherapeutic drugs will kill all of your cancer cells
• B. Chemotherapeutic medications are attracted mostly to slowly dividing cells
• C. Chemotherapy can cure cancer
• D. Chemotherapy is specifically destroying cancer cells

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chemotherapy drugs are designed to target and destroy rapidly dividing cells, which include cancer cells. Cancer cells often divide more quickly than normal cells, and chemotherapeutic agents exploit this characteristic to inhibit their growth and promote cell death. While chemotherapy can also affect other rapidly dividing normal cells (such as those in the bone marrow, gastrointestinal tract, and hair follicles), the primary goal is to target cancerous cells.

5. Nurse Farah is caring for a client following a mastectomy. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is experiencing a complication related to the surgery?

• A. Pain at the incision site
• B. Arm edema on the operative side
• C. Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain
• D. Complaints of decreased sensation near the operative site

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Arm edema on the operative side (lymphedema) is a known complication after a mastectomy. This can indicate impaired lymphatic drainage, leading to fluid accumulation in the arm. Pain at the incision site is expected postoperatively and may not necessarily indicate a complication. Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain is a common finding in the immediate postoperative period. Complaints of decreased sensation near the operative site could be related to nerve damage or surgical manipulation, but it is not a typical complication after a mastectomy.

Similar Questions