ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. Which of the following is a sign of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Tachypnea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Bradycardia. Bradycardia, or a slower than normal heart rate, is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions, but an excess of digoxin in the body can lead to toxicity. This toxicity can manifest as various symptoms, with bradycardia being one of the most common ones. Hypertension (high blood pressure) and tachycardia (fast heart rate) are not typical signs of digoxin toxicity. Tachypnea, which refers to rapid breathing, is also not a common sign of digoxin toxicity.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Place the client in the supine position.
- B. Perform chest percussion every 4 hours.
- C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1,500 mL/day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with pneumonia is to perform chest percussion every 4 hours. Chest percussion helps loosen secretions and improve airway clearance in clients with pneumonia. Placing the client in the supine position can worsen breathing, so it is incorrect. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula is a common intervention for clients with respiratory issues but is not specific to pneumonia. Limiting fluid intake to 1,500 mL/day may not be appropriate as pneumonia can lead to dehydration, so it is not the priority intervention.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which finding should the healthcare provider identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?
- A. Heart rate 58/min.
- B. Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dL.
- C. Hgb 14 g/dL.
- D. WBC count 2,900/mm3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: a low WBC count. Clozapine can suppress bone marrow function, leading to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition, known as agranulocytosis, increases the risk of severe infections. Monitoring WBC counts is essential during clozapine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and are not contraindications for administering clozapine.
4. Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Monitor potassium levels
- B. Monitor sodium levels
- C. Monitor calcium levels
- D. Monitor glucose levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in patients receiving furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the urine, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B) is not typically necessary with furosemide use, as it primarily affects potassium levels. Calcium levels (choice C) and glucose levels (choice D) are not directly impacted by furosemide and require monitoring for other conditions or medications.
5. A client receiving radiation therapy for breast cancer may experience which of the following side effects that the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Nausea
- C. Skin irritation
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During radiation therapy for breast cancer, one common side effect is skin irritation due to the impact of radiation on the skin cells. This side effect should be closely monitored by the nurse. Fatigue may also occur as a side effect of radiation therapy, but skin irritation is more specific to the treatment area and is a priority in this case. Nausea and weight gain are not typically associated with radiation therapy for breast cancer, making them incorrect choices.
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