Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?

• A. Check the residual volume before administering the feeding
• B. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees
• C. Flush the tube with 10 mL of sterile water
• D. Verify the client's tube placement

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Verifying the client's tube placement is the priority before administering any enteral feeding. This step ensures that the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach or intestines, minimizing the risk of complications such as aspiration. Checking the residual volume, elevating the head of the bed, and flushing the tube are important steps but should occur after confirming the tube placement to ensure the feeding is delivered safely and effectively.

2. How should a healthcare professional educate a patient on the use of an incentive spirometer?

• A. Instruct the patient to take deep breaths
• B. Instruct the patient to cough forcefully
• C. Instruct the patient to blow into the spirometer
• D. Instruct the patient to use the spirometer every hour

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Instructing the patient to use the spirometer every hour is crucial for optimal lung expansion and to prevent postoperative pulmonary complications. This regular use helps to keep the lungs clear and maintain their capacity. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because deep breathing, forceful coughing, and blowing into the spirometer do not specifically address the proper use of the incentive spirometer, which is essential for postoperative respiratory recovery.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has osteoarthritis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Joint pain that improves with rest.
• B. Joint stiffness that improves with movement.
• C. Red, warm joints.
• D. Systemic inflammation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In osteoarthritis, joint pain that improves with rest is a common characteristic due to the relief obtained by reducing weight-bearing on the affected joint. Joint stiffness that improves with movement is more indicative of rheumatoid arthritis, not osteoarthritis. Red, warm joints are typically seen in inflammatory arthritis conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, while systemic inflammation is not a primary feature of osteoarthritis.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood glucose of 110 mg/dL.
• B. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours.
• C. WBC count of 6,500/mm3.
• D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours may indicate dehydration or malnutrition, which are critical concerns for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Therefore, the nurse should report this finding to the provider. Elevated blood glucose levels (Choice A) can be managed by adjusting TPN components, WBC count (Choice C) and a slightly elevated temperature (Choice D) are not directly related to TPN administration and may not require immediate intervention.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse question?

• A. Calcium carbonate
• B. Furosemide
• C. Epoetin alfa
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which may lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, its use should be questioned in this population. Choice A, Calcium carbonate, is commonly used to manage phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Choice B, Furosemide, is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but should be used with caution in kidney disease. Choice C, Epoetin alfa, is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease and anemia.

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