ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?
- A. Check the residual volume before administering the feeding
- B. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees
- C. Flush the tube with 10 mL of sterile water
- D. Verify the client's tube placement
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Verifying the client's tube placement is the priority before administering any enteral feeding. This step ensures that the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach or intestines, minimizing the risk of complications such as aspiration. Checking the residual volume, elevating the head of the bed, and flushing the tube are important steps but should occur after confirming the tube placement to ensure the feeding is delivered safely and effectively.
2. A patient is prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?
- A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
- D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density, which helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. Choice A is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not primarily affect calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing an infant who has hydrocephalus and is 6 hours postoperative following placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Decreased urine output
- B. Temperature of 37.5 degrees C (99.5 degrees F)
- C. Heart rate 130/min
- D. Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The provider should report the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid to the healthcare provider as it may indicate shunt malfunction or infection, requiring immediate attention to prevent complications. Decreased urine output, a temperature of 37.5 degrees C, and a heart rate of 130/min are common postoperative findings and may not be directly related to shunt function. While these findings should still be monitored, they do not require immediate reporting like cerebrospinal fluid leakage.
4. During transfusion of a unit of whole blood, a nurse is assessing a client who develops a cough, shortness of breath, elevated blood pressure, and distended neck veins. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Epinephrine
- B. Lorazepam
- C. Furosemide
- D. Diphenhydramine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client's symptoms indicate circulatory overload, which can occur during blood transfusions. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is commonly prescribed in such cases to help relieve manifestations of circulatory overload by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid volume. Epinephrine is used for severe allergic reactions, lorazepam for anxiety or seizures, and diphenhydramine for mild allergic reactions or as a sedative. Therefore, the correct choice is Furosemide (C) to manage circulatory overload during a blood transfusion.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased oxygen saturation with exercise.
- B. Pursed-lip breathing with exertion.
- C. Productive cough with clear sputum.
- D. Clubbing of the fingers.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Productive cough with clear sputum.' Clients with COPD often have a chronic productive cough with thick, often purulent sputum. This sputum can be white, yellow, green, or clear. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Oxygen saturation may decrease with exertion in COPD due to impaired gas exchange. Pursed-lip breathing is used to control dyspnea, not directly related to increased saturation with exercise. Clubbing of the fingers is typically seen in conditions such as cyanotic heart disease or lung cancer.
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