ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?
- A. Check the residual volume before administering the feeding
- B. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees
- C. Flush the tube with 10 mL of sterile water
- D. Verify the client's tube placement
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Verifying the client's tube placement is the priority before administering any enteral feeding. This step ensures that the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach or intestines, minimizing the risk of complications such as aspiration. Checking the residual volume, elevating the head of the bed, and flushing the tube are important steps but should occur after confirming the tube placement to ensure the feeding is delivered safely and effectively.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride IV to a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Give the medication as a bolus over 10 minutes.
- B. Dilute the medication before administration.
- C. Infuse the medication at a rate of 10 mEq/hr.
- D. Administer the medication undiluted.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering potassium chloride IV to a client with hypokalemia is to infuse the medication at a rate of 10 mEq/hr. This slow infusion rate is crucial to prevent the development of hyperkalemia, a potentially dangerous condition. Option A is incorrect because giving the medication as a bolus over 10 minutes can lead to adverse effects. Option B is incorrect as potassium chloride does not necessarily need to be diluted before administration in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as administering the medication undiluted can also increase the risk of hyperkalemia.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased urine output
- B. Increased serum sodium
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In clients with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH), the nurse should expect hyponatremia. SIADH leads to excess water retention, diluting the sodium levels in the blood, resulting in low serum sodium levels. Choice A, increased urine output, is incorrect as SIADH causes water retention, leading to decreased urine output. Choice B, increased serum sodium, is incorrect because SIADH causes a dilutional effect due to water retention, resulting in decreased serum sodium levels. Choice D, hypercalcemia, is unrelated to SIADH and not a typical finding.
4. How should bleeding in a patient on warfarin be monitored?
- A. Monitor INR levels
- B. Monitor hemoglobin levels
- C. Monitor potassium levels
- D. Monitor platelet count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels. INR levels are the most critical indicator for monitoring bleeding risk in patients on warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio and specifically measures the clotting tendency of the blood. Monitoring hemoglobin levels, potassium levels, or platelet count are not as directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk in patients on warfarin.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with patients on furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide use due to its mechanism of action in the kidneys. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not common electrolyte imbalances seen with furosemide use.
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