ATI RN
Psychology 2301 Exam 1
1. Which of the following is a common effect of persistent discrimination?
- A. Increased happiness
- B. Greater intelligence and wisdom
- C. Cardiovascular reactivity
- D. Increased consciousness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cardiovascular reactivity. Persistent discrimination can have negative impacts on an individual's physical health, leading to increased cardiovascular reactivity. This can manifest as higher blood pressure, heart rate, and overall stress on the cardiovascular system. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because persistent discrimination typically does not result in increased happiness, greater intelligence and wisdom, or increased consciousness. Instead, it often leads to detrimental effects on mental and physical health.
2. When teaching a patient to take their own pulse, which medication should the nurse instruct them to monitor? (Hint: if pulse is <60 or >100, the patient should contact their healthcare provider before taking the medication)
- A. Digoxin
- B. Lithium
- C. Montelukast
- D. Phenytoin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is essential for patients taking Digoxin to monitor their pulse regularly. If their pulse falls below 60 or exceeds 100 beats per minute, they should contact their healthcare provider immediately. This is crucial due to Digoxin's potential to affect heart rate, making pulse monitoring a vital aspect of patient care while on this medication.
3. What is the etiology and most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis in a 22-year-old female college student?
- A. Autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells; treatment with intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids.
- B. A decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors; treatment with corticosteroids and intravenous immunoglobulins.
- C. Cerebellar lesions; surgical and immunosuppressive treatment.
- D. Excess acetylcholinesterase production; treatment with thymectomy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is characterized by a decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors rather than autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells (Choice A), cerebellar lesions (Choice C), or excess acetylcholinesterase production (Choice D). The most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis involves corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and intravenous immunoglobulins to block the antibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors. Intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids are not primary treatments for myasthenia gravis.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer clindamycin 200 mg by intermittent IV bolus. The amount available is clindamycin injection 200 mg in 100 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) to infuse over 30 min. The healthcare professional should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
- A. 200 mL/hr
- B. 150 mL/hr
- C. 100 mL/hr
- D. 250 mL/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in mL/hr: (Volume in mL / Time in hours) = Flow rate in mL/hr. In this case, (100 mL / 0.5 hr) = 200 mL/hr. The correct calculation is: 100 mL (volume) / 0.5 hr (time) = 200 mL/hr. Therefore, the correct answer is 200 mL/hr. Choice B (150 mL/hr), C (100 mL/hr), and D (250 mL/hr) are incorrect as they do not match the calculated flow rate needed for the administration of clindamycin.
5. A dental hygienist finds several new carious lesions in a patient with chronic obstructive respiratory disease (COPD). While conducting the medical and dental histories, the dental hygienist is most likely to find an increased use of which of the following?
- A. Protein
- B. Cough drops
- C. Fluoride
- D. Xylitol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cough drops. Patients with COPD often use cough drops to manage their symptoms, which can lead to an increase in carious lesions due to their sugar content. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as protein, fluoride, and xylitol are not typically associated with an increased risk of carious lesions in patients with COPD.
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