which of the following is a common cause of mechanical small intestine obstruction
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024

1. Which of the following is a common cause of mechanical small intestine obstruction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postoperative adhesions are a common cause of mechanical small intestine obstruction. Adhesions can form after abdominal surgery, causing bands of scar tissue that may twist or pull the intestines, leading to obstruction. This is a more common cause compared to infection, tumors, or foreign bodies. Infection may lead to inflammation but is not a typical cause of mechanical obstruction. Tumors and foreign bodies can cause blockages but are less common than postoperative adhesions.

2. Seizures are diagnosed by which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Seizures are most accurately diagnosed by EEG, which measures brain activity. Choice A is incorrect as ECG (electrocardiogram) measures heart activity, not brain activity. Choice B is incorrect as CBC (complete blood count) is a blood test and not used to diagnose seizures. Choice C is incorrect as an ECG (electrocardiogram) also measures heart activity, not brain activity, and is not the primary diagnostic tool for seizures.

3. A patient has been diagnosed with a fungal infection and is to be treated with itraconazole (Sporanox). Prior to administration, the nurse notes that the patient is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for a seizure disorder. Based on this medication regime, which of the following will be true regarding the medications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When itraconazole is administered with carbamazepine, itraconazole may increase the serum levels of carbamazepine, potentially leading to toxicity. Therefore, choice A is correct. Discontinuing carbamazepine (choice B) or changing the antiseizure medication (choice C) is not necessary unless advised by a healthcare provider. Choice D, requiring a higher dosage of itraconazole, is not accurate in this scenario.

4. Which of the following women is at highest risk for the development of endometrial cancer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is a 45-year-old woman who is obese and has a menstrual pattern consisting of periods of amenorrhea and infrequent periods. Obesity and prolonged exposure to estrogen unopposed by progesterone due to infrequent ovulation are significant risk factors for endometrial cancer. Choices A, C, and D do not directly correlate with the increased risk of endometrial cancer. Postmenopausal status alone (Choice A), overweight with hypertension (Choice C), and smoking (Choice D) are not the primary risk factors for endometrial cancer.

5. A client with atrial fibrillation is at risk for which of the following complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A client with atrial fibrillation is at increased risk of thromboembolism due to blood stasis in the atria. This can lead to the formation of blood clots, which may travel to the lungs and cause a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a serious complication of atrial fibrillation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while atrial fibrillation can lead to complications such as stroke or heart failure, it is specifically associated with an increased risk of pulmonary embolism due to the clot formation associated with the condition.

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