ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. What should a nurse include in patient teaching for a patient prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis?
- A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness in treating endometriosis.
- B. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
- C. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.
- D. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken once a week to maintain effectiveness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When teaching a patient prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis, the nurse should emphasize the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent hormone levels and ensures the effectiveness of the treatment. Option A is correct because it addresses this key point. Option B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken consistently but not necessarily with food. Option C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider is not advisable. Option D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is usually taken daily, not weekly, for the treatment of endometriosis.
2. DiGeorge syndrome is a primary immune deficiency caused by:
- A. Failure of B cells to mature
- B. Congenital lack of thymic tissue
- C. Failure of formed elements of blood to develop
- D. Selective IgG deficiency
Correct answer: B
Rationale: DiGeorge syndrome is caused by a congenital lack of thymic tissue, which plays a crucial role in T cell development and maturation, leading to immune deficiency. Choice A is incorrect because DiGeorge syndrome primarily affects T cells, not B cells. Choice C is incorrect as it is too broad and not specific to the thymus. Choice D is incorrect as selective IgG deficiency is a different condition unrelated to DiGeorge syndrome.
3. A patient was sneezing frequently after a few days of allergic rhinitis, and she noticed her eye became red. She denies any trauma, eye pain, or visual disturbance. Physical examination reveals a subconjunctival hemorrhage. Which statement is accurate pertaining to this case?
- A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
- B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
- C. Corticosteroid eye drops will be prescribed to reduce the bleeding.
- D. Antibiotic eye drops will be prescribed to prevent infection.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.' Subconjunctival hemorrhage typically resolves on its own without treatment. It is a self-limiting condition that does not require specific intervention. Choice B is incorrect as immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary for subconjunctival hemorrhage unless there are other concerning symptoms or risk factors present. Choice C is incorrect because corticosteroid eye drops are not typically used for subconjunctival hemorrhage. Choice D is also incorrect as antibiotic eye drops are not indicated since subconjunctival hemorrhage is not due to an infection.
4. Which of the following types of vitamin or mineral deficiency can cause megaloblastic anemia and is associated with lower extremity paresthesias?
- A. Vitamin B12
- B. Folate
- C. Iron
- D. Vitamin K
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin B12. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to megaloblastic anemia, a condition characterized by the production of abnormally large and immature red blood cells. Lower extremity paresthesias, such as tingling or numbness, are common neurological symptoms associated with vitamin B12 deficiency. Folate deficiency can also cause megaloblastic anemia but is not typically linked to lower extremity paresthesias. Iron deficiency leads to microcytic anemia, not megaloblastic anemia. Vitamin K deficiency is associated with bleeding tendencies, not megaloblastic anemia or paresthesias.
5. As you are walking in the park, a huge black Labrador runs up to you and places his paws on your shoulders. Immediately your heart starts racing, you feel palpitations, anxiety, and your hands become a little shaky. The nurse knows that this response is primarily caused by:
- A. cerebral cortex.
- B. somatic nervous system.
- C. limbic system.
- D. autonomic nervous system.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The autonomic nervous system controls involuntary bodily functions like heart rate, respiration, and sweating. In the given scenario, the 'fight or flight' response is activated, leading to increased heart rate, palpitations, anxiety, and shaky hands. The cerebral cortex is involved in conscious thought processes and decision-making, not the immediate physiological response observed here. The somatic nervous system regulates voluntary movements, while the limbic system is responsible for emotions and memory, but the autonomic nervous system is primarily responsible for the physiological responses seen in this situation.
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