Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of depression has been prescribed a medication that ultimately increases the levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin between neurons. Which process will accompany the actions of the neurotransmitter in a chemical synapse?

• A. Two-way communication between neurons is permitted, in contrast to the one-way communication in electrical synapses.
• B. Communication between a neuron and the single neuron it is connected with will be facilitated.
• C. The neurotransmitter will cross gap junctions more readily.
• D. More neurotransmitters will cross the synaptic cleft and bond with postsynaptic receptors.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When serotonin levels increase, more neurotransmitters will cross the synaptic cleft and bind with postsynaptic receptors, facilitating enhanced communication. Option A is incorrect because chemical synapses, unlike electrical synapses, are unidirectional. Option B is incorrect because neurotransmitters impact communication with multiple neurons, not just a single connected neuron. Option C is incorrect because neurotransmitters cross the synaptic cleft, not gap junctions.

2. A patient is prescribed tadalafil (Cialis) for erectile dysfunction. What specific contraindication should the nurse discuss with the patient?

• A. History of hypertension
• B. Use of nitrates
• C. Use of antihypertensive medications
• D. History of peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of nitrates.' Tadalafil (Cialis) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and Cialis both cause vasodilation, which can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure when used together. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a history of hypertension, use of antihypertensive medications, and a history of peptic ulcer disease are not specific contraindications for tadalafil use.

3. A 74-year-old woman states that many of her peers underwent hormone replacement therapy (HRT) in years past. The woman asks the nurse why her primary care provider has not yet proposed this treatment for her. What fact should underlie the nurse's response to the woman?

• A. The risks of stroke and breast cancer are unacceptably high in women taking HRT.
• B. HRT was found to cause mood disturbances in many women who used it long term.
• C. HRT was found to be a significant risk factor for bone fractures and osteoporosis.
• D. The risks of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease were found to be significantly higher in women using HRT.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the main reason HRT is not recommended for all women is due to the increased risks of stroke and breast cancer associated with its use. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) has been linked to an elevated risk of stroke and breast cancer, which outweigh its potential benefits for many individuals. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the primary concerns regarding HRT use. While HRT can indeed cause mood disturbances and may affect bone health, the significant risks of stroke and breast cancer are the primary reasons why healthcare providers may choose not to recommend HRT for some women.

4. What is a common cause of a pulmonary embolism?

• A. An autoimmune disorder
• B. A venous blood clot from the lower extremity
• C. An increase in intracranial pressure
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A pulmonary embolism is commonly caused by a blood clot that originates in the venous system of the lower extremity and travels to the lungs, blocking blood flow. This clot is known as a venous thromboembolism. An autoimmune disorder (Choice A) is not typically associated with pulmonary embolism. Intracranial pressure (Choice C) refers to pressure inside the skull and is unrelated to pulmonary embolism. Hypotension (Choice D) is low blood pressure and is not a common cause of pulmonary embolism.

5. A client has approached the nurse asking for advice on how to deal with his alcohol addiction. The nurse should tell the client that the only effective treatment for alcoholism is:

• A. psychotherapy.
• B. total abstinence.
• C. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA).
• D. aversion therapy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: total abstinence. Total abstinence from alcohol is considered the most effective treatment for alcoholism. This approach eliminates the risk of relapse and helps individuals maintain sobriety. While psychotherapy can be beneficial in addressing underlying issues, total abstinence is crucial in overcoming alcohol addiction. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is a supportive group that can complement treatment, but it is not the only effective approach. Aversion therapy aims to create a negative association with alcohol but may not address the underlying causes of addiction, making total abstinence a more comprehensive and recommended approach.

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