Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of depression has been prescribed a medication that ultimately increases the levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin between neurons. Which process will accompany the actions of the neurotransmitter in a chemical synapse?

• A. Two-way communication between neurons is permitted, in contrast to the one-way communication in electrical synapses.
• B. Communication between a neuron and the single neuron it is connected with will be facilitated.
• C. The neurotransmitter will cross gap junctions more readily.
• D. More neurotransmitters will cross the synaptic cleft and bond with postsynaptic receptors.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When serotonin levels increase, more neurotransmitters will cross the synaptic cleft and bind with postsynaptic receptors, facilitating enhanced communication. Option A is incorrect because chemical synapses, unlike electrical synapses, are unidirectional. Option B is incorrect because neurotransmitters impact communication with multiple neurons, not just a single connected neuron. Option C is incorrect because neurotransmitters cross the synaptic cleft, not gap junctions.

2. A patient was sneezing frequently after a few days of allergic rhinitis, and she noticed her eye became red. She denies any trauma, eye pain, or visual disturbance. Physical examination reveals a subconjunctival hemorrhage. Which statement is accurate pertaining to this case?

• A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
• B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
• C. Corticosteroid eye drops will be prescribed to reduce the bleeding.
• D. Antibiotic eye drops will be prescribed to prevent infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.' Subconjunctival hemorrhage typically resolves on its own without treatment. It is a self-limiting condition that does not require specific intervention. Choice B is incorrect as immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary for subconjunctival hemorrhage unless there are other concerning symptoms or risk factors present. Choice C is incorrect because corticosteroid eye drops are not typically used for subconjunctival hemorrhage. Choice D is also incorrect as antibiotic eye drops are not indicated since subconjunctival hemorrhage is not due to an infection.

3. Following cardiothoracic surgery where controlled therapeutic hypothermia was utilized to decrease metabolic demands, the nurse responsible for monitoring this client postoperatively should be assessing for which potential complication related to cold cardioplegia?

• A. Thrombocytopenia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Coagulopathy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Coagulopathy is the correct answer. During therapeutic hypothermia, which lowers the body's temperature to reduce metabolic demands post-surgery, coagulopathy, or impaired blood clotting, is a potential complication due to the effects of cold cardioplegia. Thrombocytopenia (choice A) refers to a low platelet count and is not directly related to cold cardioplegia. Hypokalemia (choice B) is a condition of low potassium levels, and hyperglycemia (choice C) is high blood sugar levels, neither of which are primary complications of cold cardioplegia.

4. Cellular swelling is:

• A. Irreversible
• B. Evident early in all types of cellular injury
• C. Manifested by decreased intracellular sodium
• D. None of the above is correct

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cellular swelling is indeed evident early in all types of cellular injury. This occurs due to the influx of water into the cell, leading to swelling. Choice A is incorrect because cellular swelling is reversible if the injury is not severe. Choice C is incorrect because cellular swelling is not manifested by decreased intracellular sodium; in fact, it is associated with increased intracellular sodium due to water influx. Choice D is incorrect as option B is the correct statement.

5. Following a spinal cord injury suffered in a motor vehicle accident, a 22-year-old male has lost fine motor function of his finger and thumb, but is still able to perform gross motor movements of his hand and arm. Which component of his 'white matter' has most likely been damaged?

• A. The inner layer (archilayer)
• B. The middle layer (paleolayer)
• C. The outer layer (neolayer)
• D. The reticular formation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The outer layer (neolayer). The white matter of the spinal cord consists of three layers: the outer layer (neolayer), the middle layer (paleolayer), and the inner layer (archilayer). Damage to the outer layer (neolayer) is likely to affect fine motor skills, explaining the loss of fine motor function in the finger and thumb while gross motor movements remain intact. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the specific layer of the white matter that is typically associated with fine motor control.

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