Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of depression has been prescribed a medication that ultimately increases the levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin between neurons. Which process will accompany the actions of the neurotransmitter in a chemical synapse?

• A. Two-way communication between neurons is permitted, in contrast to the one-way communication in electrical synapses.
• B. Communication between a neuron and the single neuron it is connected with will be facilitated.
• C. The neurotransmitter will cross gap junctions more readily.
• D. More neurotransmitters will cross the synaptic cleft and bond with postsynaptic receptors.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When serotonin levels increase, more neurotransmitters will cross the synaptic cleft and bind with postsynaptic receptors, facilitating enhanced communication. Option A is incorrect because chemical synapses, unlike electrical synapses, are unidirectional. Option B is incorrect because neurotransmitters impact communication with multiple neurons, not just a single connected neuron. Option C is incorrect because neurotransmitters cross the synaptic cleft, not gap junctions.

2. A patient with osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

• A. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• B. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
• D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This helps in preventing further bone loss and reducing the risk of fractures in patients with osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect because raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone, but rather helps to maintain existing bone mass. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

3. A 17-year-old woman has come to the clinic requesting emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 24 hours ago. What medication is the clinician most likely to prescribe?

• A. Levonorgestrel (Plan B)
• B. Mifepristone (RU-486)
• C. Ulipristal acetate (ella)
• D. Estradiol (Estrace)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levonorgestrel (Plan B). Levonorgestrel is the most commonly prescribed medication for emergency contraception within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. It is effective when taken within 72 hours after intercourse, with better efficacy the sooner it is taken. Choice B, Mifepristone (RU-486), is not indicated for emergency contraception but is used for medical abortion. Choice C, Ulipristal acetate (ella), is another option for emergency contraception that is effective up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse. Choice D, Estradiol (Estrace), is not used for emergency contraception.

4. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

• A. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory)
• B. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor)
• C. Cranial nerve VI (Abducens)
• D. Cranial nerve VII (Facial)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.

5. What physiological reaction occurs in the body with the 'Fight or flight' response?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Constricted pupils
• C. Decreased blood pressure
• D. Decreased heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The 'fight or flight' response is a primal physiological reaction that prepares the body to respond to a perceived threat or danger. This response triggers an increase in heart rate to pump more blood to the muscles and vital organs, preparing the body for action. Choice B, 'Constricted pupils,' is part of the 'fight or flight' response as well, as it helps improve focus and vision. Choice C, 'Decreased blood pressure,' is incorrect because blood pressure typically increases to ensure adequate circulation during the 'fight or flight' response. Choice D, 'Decreased heart rate,' is incorrect as the heart rate increases to supply more oxygen and nutrients to the body during times of stress.

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