Nursing Elites

1. Which scenario would be an example of a child born with congenital insensitivity to pain?

• A. A child who does not cry when injured and fails to respond to painful stimuli.
• B. A child who cries excessively and has a heightened response to pain.
• C. A child who experiences pain but has difficulty expressing it.
• D. A child who is sensitive to minor stimuli but has a delayed response to severe pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct scenario depicting a child with congenital insensitivity to pain is when the child does not cry when injured and fails to respond to painful stimuli. This condition is characterized by the inability to feel and react to pain, resulting in a lack of typical responses such as crying or withdrawal when hurt. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a child with heightened pain sensitivity, opposite to the insensitivity seen in the condition. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests the child feels pain but struggles to communicate it, which is not the case with congenital insensitivity to pain. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a child who is sensitive to minor stimuli and has delayed responses to severe pain, which is not indicative of congenital insensitivity to pain.

2. A patient who is taking metronidazole for the past 4 days for the treatment of a parasitic infection reports to the nurse that his most recent dose made him 'flushed, sweaty, and sick in the stomach.' What assessment is most likely to address the cause of this phenomenon?

• A. “Have you experienced any allergic reactions to metronidazole before?”
• B. “Did you drink any alcoholic beverages around the time of taking the drug?”
• C. “Did you take this dose on an empty stomach?”
• D. “Are you currently using any over-the-counter antihistamines?”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with alcohol, leading to symptoms such as flushing, sweating, and gastrointestinal upset. Asking the patient about alcohol consumption can help identify if this reaction is due to alcohol interaction. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on penicillin allergy, which is not relevant to metronidazole. Choice C is less likely to cause the reported symptoms and is not a common concern with metronidazole. Choice D is not directly related to the symptoms described by the patient.

3. In osteoporosis, what is the expected therapeutic action of raloxifene (Evista)?

• A. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• B. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
• D. It decreases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This helps in strengthening bones, reducing the risk of fractures, and improving bone health in patients with osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather prevents bone loss. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not primarily affect calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not primarily decrease the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

4. A patient who was frequently homeless over the past several years has begun a drug regimen consisting solely of isoniazid (INH). What is this patient's most likely diagnosis?

• A. Active tuberculosis
• B. Latent tuberculosis
• C. Mycobacterium avium complex
• D. Human immunodeficiency virus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Active tuberculosis. Given the patient's history of homelessness and initiation of isoniazid (INH) treatment, the most likely diagnosis is active tuberculosis. Isoniazid is a first-line medication used in the treatment of active tuberculosis. Latent tuberculosis (choice B) would not typically necessitate treatment with isoniazid alone. Mycobacterium avium complex (choice C) is not typically treated with isoniazid alone. Human immunodeficiency virus (choice D) is a risk factor for developing tuberculosis but is not the primary diagnosis in this patient scenario.

5. How should the nurse respond to a 72-year-old patient diagnosed with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) who is skeptical about tamsulosin (Flomax) for symptom relief?

• A. “Flomax can increase the amount of urine your kidneys produce, resulting in better urine flow.”
• B. “Flomax can relax your prostate and your bladder neck, making it easier to pass urine.”
• C. “Flomax makes your urine less alkaline, reducing the irritation that makes your prostate swell.”
• D. “Flomax increases the strength of your bladder muscle and results in a stronger flow of urine.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is choice B because it explains the mechanism of action of Flomax, which helps the patient understand how the medication works. By stating that Flomax relaxes the prostate and bladder neck, making it easier to pass urine, the nurse is addressing the patient's concerns about symptom relief. Choices A, C, and D provide inaccurate information about Flomax's mechanism of action and do not directly address the patient's skepticism or concerns.

Similar Questions