Nursing Elites

1. A nursing student is learning about the effects of bactericidal agents. How does rifampin (Rifadin) achieve a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms?

• A. It is metabolized in the liver.
• B. It binds to acetylcholine.
• C. It inhibits synthesis of RNA.
• D. It causes phagocytosis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rifampin (Rifadin) achieves a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms by inhibiting the synthesis of RNA. This action interferes with bacterial RNA synthesis, leading to the suppression of protein synthesis in the bacteria, ultimately causing their death. Option A is incorrect because rifampin is primarily metabolized in the liver, but this is not how it exerts its bactericidal effects. Option B is incorrect as rifampin does not bind to acetylcholine. Option D is also incorrect as rifampin does not cause phagocytosis.

2. A woman is complaining that she feels like the room is spinning even though she is not moving. Which of the following is characteristic of benign positional vertigo?

• A. It usually occurs with a headache.
• B. Pupillary changes are common.
• C. It is usually triggered when the patient bends forward.
• D. Nystagmus continues even when eyes fixate on an object.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Benign positional vertigo is typically triggered by changes in head position, such as bending forward or turning over in bed. This change in position leads to brief episodes of vertigo, often associated with nystagmus, which is rapid, involuntary eye movements. Pupillary changes and headaches are not typical features of benign positional vertigo, making choices B and A incorrect. Nystagmus in benign positional vertigo usually stops when the eyes fixate on an object, so choice D is also incorrect.

3. When starting on oral contraceptives, what important information should the nurse provide regarding the timing of the medication?

• A. Oral contraceptives must be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
• B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day as long as the schedule is consistent.
• C. Oral contraceptives should be taken with food to enhance absorption.
• D. Oral contraceptives can be skipped occasionally without significant consequences.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When starting on oral contraceptives, it is crucial to take them at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential for optimal efficacy. Choice C is inaccurate as oral contraceptives do not need to be taken with food for absorption. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses or skipping oral contraceptives can reduce their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.

4. A 30-year-old man has a history of heart transplant and is receiving long-term steroids to prevent rejection. The patient is due for routine vaccines. Attenuated vaccines are contraindicated in this patient because the antigen is:

• A. live and can cause infection.
• B. mutated and infectious.
• C. inactive but still infectious.
• D. pathogenic.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: live and can cause infection. In patients like the one described with a history of heart transplant and receiving long-term steroids, who are immunocompromised, live attenuated vaccines are contraindicated. Live vaccines contain weakened (attenuated) forms of the virus or bacteria, which can replicate and cause mild infections in healthy individuals but can lead to serious infections in immunocompromised individuals. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because attenuated vaccines are not mutated, not inactive, and not pathogenic in healthy individuals, respectively.

5. A patient is being treated with finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What expected outcome should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

• A. The medication will cure BPH after treatment is complete.
• B. The effects of the medication may take several weeks or months to become noticeable.
• C. The medication may cause increased hair growth.
• D. The medication may decrease libido.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Finasteride is used to reduce the size of the prostate gland in patients with BPH, leading to decreased urinary frequency and urgency over several weeks or months. Choice A is incorrect because finasteride does not cure BPH but helps manage symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as increased hair growth is associated with another medication called minoxidil, not finasteride. Choice D is incorrect since finasteride may cause a decrease in libido as a side effect.

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